Questions and Answers on faith and practice
Sayed Mohammad Al-Musavi
In The name of Allah, The most Merciful, Most Compassionate and by the
remembrance of His Last Proof (a.t.f.s.)
In the present world, Information Technology (IT) is given a lot of
importance. To make information available to people in different fields is
looked up with respect. Those who are involved in imparting information are
accorded reverence and esteem.
The reason for the respect and esteem is that the accuracy of any
decision depends upon the accuracy and treasure of the information available.
Also, accurate information minimizes probabilities of errors. Therefore,
availability of correct and accurate information is a foremost requirement for
entering any arena of life.
As per the various verses of the Holy Quran, Allah, the High has created
the world for the humans and the humans for His worship. The aim of the
existence of humanity is the worship of Allah.
The meaning of worship is:
All those actions which are done as per the command of Allah are
worship. Therefore, prayers and hajj done for ostentation are not considered as
When Allah, the High ordered Shaitan, the accursed to prostrate in front
of Hazrat Adam (a.s.), he (Shaitan) said, “O Allah! If You excuse me from this prostration; I “will worship You
as nobody has worshipped You”. Allah replied to him, “Worship is that what I desire and not what
Hence, whatever is done as per the command of Allah is worship.
Islam is a complete and comprehensive religion.
The comprehensiveness available in Islam is not found in any religion of the
world. This is because there is not a single moment in the life of man i.e.
from his first breath till his last breath in this world, wherein Islam has
failed to provide any command for his benefit. Islam has explained the simplest
and the most ordinary things of life. Islam has provided direction for keeping
and clipping nails, manners for entering and exiting the house, the etiquette
for sitting on dining cloth, picking up a morsel and even chewing the morsel.
Also, it has been explained where a person should look while having his food,
while reciting prayers or while walking on the road... In brief, Islam has
explained each and every aspect related to human life. There is not a single
affair of humans which has been neglected by Islam.
On one hand, Islam has given the explanation of each and every necessity
of human beings; on the other hand, the commands are in their simplest form so
that they can be acted on very easily. Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) said: “I have brought simple and easy Shariat
(laws).” Therefore, all the rules of holy Islam are easy to act upon.
Also, Allah has not put any obligations on man which are beyond his capacity to
The question before us is that - when Allah has not made anything
binding on a human which is beyond his capacity and Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) has
brought simple and easy Shariat - then why is it difficult for us to act on the
laws of Islam? And why is worship associated to few things?
The most important reason for the above is not being aware of the laws
of Islam and the other significant reason being negligence. We have not paid
heed to the fact that Islam has provided laws for each and every aspect of
human life. This negligence is the cause of our not knowing the laws of Islam.
Islam has condemned heedlessness and ignorance. Islam has ordered people
to refer to scholars for things about which they are ignorant. The scholars
have been ordered to make the reality of things clear to those who inquire from
them. Allah has never kept the earth void of His Proof so that people may
contend that if they would have known the command they would have definitely
acted on it. When the Imams (a.s.) were physically present among the people
they explained the laws to them.
Now when Allah due to disobedience and carelessness of the people has
hidden His Last Proof (may Allah hasten his reappearance), the Last Imam (a.s.)
has made the scholars a proof of Allah upon the people so that people may
inquire about their problems from them and their trustworthy representatives.
Allah, the High had sent Hazrat Hujjatul Islam Wal Muslemeen, al Haaj
Aqae Sayyed Mohammad Musawi (May Allah shower His bounties on him) as a bounty
to India. In reality, he awakened the people of India and imparted
determination and enthusiasm to the youth. He stirred them to act on the
truthful religion. He sparked the feelings of religiousness everywhere and
brought upon the Shias of India a new era. Many religious organizations,
schools and madrasas came into existence due to his guidance. Imaan Foundation,
Najafi House and other organizations
under it are the result of his leadership and foresight. There might not be any
other similar organization which is serving the Shia community on such a large
One of the effects of his efforts in bringing the people towards
religion was that people sought replies from him about their daily problems of
life. Inspite of his busy schedule, he made it a point to reply to the queries
of the people. The system of question and answer from Hujjatul Islam is still
The book in your hand is a compilation of the questions put forth by
people and the replies given by Hujjatul Islam Wal Muslimeen Sayyed Musawi. The
questions dealt within the book pertain to many aspects of life. You will
easily find replies to questions which are usually not dealt within other books
May Allah (s.w.t.) hasten the reappearance of Imam Al-Mahdi (a.t.f.s.)
and include us among his sincere servants. May He give us taufeeq to act
according to the commands of Allah. Aameen
May Allah (s.w.t.) protect Hujjatul Islam from calamities and jealousy
of evil people and give him a Iong life and increase his Tawfeeq to serve the
holy Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) and their followers. Aameen.
Imaan Foundation, Najafi
Q1. How should one pray in a bus or a
train, while on a journey when one cannot stop at a place and face the Qibla?
A. While travelling in a bus, train, or
a plane, or any other vehicle one should always make an effort, as far as
possible, to face the Qibla while offering Namaz.
If he does not know on which side the Qibla is, then he should face that
direction which according to his judgement, he feels is the direction of the
Qibla. Also he should maintain
facing the Qibla during the Namaz, that is if during the Namaz, the bus, train
or other vehicle changes the direction of movement, then the person offering
Namaz should also change the direction so as to face the Qibla at all times (of
the Namaz). If he does not know, and
is unable to have any idea at all about the direction of the Qibla, then he
should face any direction for the Namaz.
He may offer Namaz in 4 directions as a precaution (Ehtiyat).
Q2. A person while praying in congregation
dozes-off for a moment which makes his Namaz void.
Should he continue till the end and again offer the Namaz from the beginning or
should he leave the congregation?
A. The person can leave the congregation
Jama’at) if he wishes to but if the person is praying in the first row; the person
should leave without causing any disturbance.
Q3. A Muslim lady asks: Kindly tell me if I
can wear such clothing in Namaz through which the body is visible from outside
in the absence of any Na-mahram? Is it necessary to cover oneself for Namaz
even if any Na-mahram is not present?
A. The body must not be visible through
the covering, even if the woman is alone and without any onlooker. It is obligatory that she covers herself with a
clothing such that her body is completely covered-except her face, her hands (i.e. the
palms and fingers of it) and the feet from the ankles to the toes.
Q4. A person joins the congregational
prayers in the first Rak’at of Namaz by saying Takbeeratul Ehram and directly
goes into Sajdah. Is it valid to do
A. The person’s Namaz will be void
because one cannot enter the Jama’at Namaz with Sajdah.
One can enter with Qunoot or Ruku.
Except in the last raka’t of Namaz, where the person who goes directly into
Sajdah will stand up again and continue his Namaz without saying any Takbeer. This will be considered as his first Raka’t of
Q5. Will a person’s Namaz be valid if he
does not say the Tasbihaat-e-Arba’a in the third and fourth Raka’t of Jama’at
A. If the person intentionally does not
say it, his Namaz will be void but it will be valid if he forgets reciting the
Q6. Would Namaz become ‘baatil’ (i.e. void)
if a person recites intentionally loudly what is supposed to be read quietly,
such as 2 Surahs of Namaz-e-Zohrayn, while praying individually?
A. Yes, Namaz would become baatil (void)
if the person recites loudly the 2 Surahs intentionally.
Only the phrase ‘Bismillah’ can be read aloud at all times. But if it is done out of forgetfulness or
ignorance, the prayer will be valid.
Q7. What are the virtues of offering
prayers in congregation?
A. Offering Namaz-e-Jama’at carries
great reward, especially morning and evening prayers.
It has been narrated by Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) that if 10 people form a congregation, all the
angels joined together cannot write the complete reward which Allah Ta’ala
bestows on the congregation.
Q8. A person sleeps late in the night
knowing fully that he will not be able to get up for morning prayers. Would it be permissible for him to sleep?
A. If the person intentionally remains
awake, unnecessarily, for instance, by watching a TV programme or movie, it
will not be permissible for him to go to sleep when it is certain that his
sleeping will make him miss the morning prayers.
Since it is haram to deliberately forego the Namaz.
Even remaining awake till late in the night will not be permissible for such a
Q9. Would it be correct to pray for one’s
wishes while crying for Imam Husain (a.s.)?
A. While crying, the heart is expressing
one’s humaneness, thus, taking a person nearer to Allah, so it is appropriate
to pray for wishes while crying. The
best prayer would be praying for the earliest re-appearance of Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.) for
avenging the blood of Imam Husain (a.s.) and that of the martyrs of Karbala.
Q10. Would Namaz be considered valid where the
person’s long hair prevents the forehead from contacting the place of
A. In such a case, the sajdah is not
correct and Namaz would be considered void.
The forehead must touch the place of prostration.
If hair or cap comes in between, the person should remove the hair or cap while
prostrating. Hair which prevents
correct prostration should be shortened.
Q11. A person joins the congregational
prayers, when the congregation is standing for the 3rd or 4th Rak’at, and
intentionally goes into Ruku’ with them without reciting Surah Al-Hamd. Will his Namaz be considered valid?
A. The Namaz will be baatil (void). If the person doesn’t recite Surah Al-Hamd
unintentionally and completes his Namaz, it would be valid. Without completing the Surah Al-Hamd, the person
should not join the congregation even if he were to lag behind.
Q12. Will Namaz be considered valid where a
woman keeps her hands on her breast in the standing position?
A. Only the women are permitted to keep
their hands on their breasts in the standing position of Namaz. Hands should not be crossed but placed separately. It is one of the recommended acts (Mustahabbat) of
Namaz for women.
Q13. Is it correct to bend the toes of the
feet during the prostration (Sajdah) of Namaz?
A. Bending the toes completely during
prostration would make the Namaz void.
The correct method is to touch the tips or the sides of the toes.
Q14. Can a person bypass a mosque at the time
of Namaz to go to another mosque?
A. If it does not constitute an insult
or disrespect, the person can go to another mosque.
In case of congregation commencing Namaz, it is greatly recommended that he
should not leave the place.
Similarly, during congregational prayer, one should not offer Namaz separately
Q15. During time of Namaz-e-Zohrayn (noon
prayers), a person goes out of town on a journey.
There is still time left for Namaz-e-Zohrayn.
Will he offer Namaz-e-Qasr or complete Namaz?
The person should pray Qasr. In the event that the prayer time passes and his
Namaz was missed during its time at home, even if he goes out of town, he shall
offer complete Qaza Namaz. When the
person returns from a journey, he will offer the Qaza Namaz of the journey as
Qasr. People are not permitted to
make their Namaz Qaza on any journey or otherwise.
Q16. Will it become incumbent upon a person to
offer Namaz-e-Aayat when he receives the news of sun or moon eclipses observed
at places sharing the same day and night with one’s village or city?
No the condition for
Namaz-e-Aayat is that it should be offered at the place where the eclipse has
Q17. During Namaz, the child picks up the ‘Muhr’
(the clay-tablet used for resting the forehead in prostration) and walks away. What should the person do?
If the place of prostration is
made of pure stone or covered by a straw-mat, the person can do Sajadah on it. If there is a carpet made of wool, cotton or
plastic, the person cannot do Sajdah on them.
In the latter case, the person should search in his pocket for a piece of wood
or paper. In case it is not
available, the person can do Sajdah on a part of his sleeve or clothes that he
is wearing. Ultimately if that too
is not feasible, the person should do Sajdah on the back of his one hand or the
thumb-nails of his hands.
Q18. Under what circumstances can a Muslim
discontinue his Namaz?
The person can discontinue his
Namaz if his life or another person’s life is in danger.
Also if one realizes that Wuzu had not been done and when there is time,
discontinuation can take place. In
the case that a person realizes that his clothes are unclean (Najis), if one
can remove it such that the necessary condition is observed, the person should
remove it. However, if a woman
recalls that her clothes are Najis and she cannot remove it, she should
discontinue her Namaz.
Q19. Would Namaz be valid where a person
intentionally does not recite the 3 takbeers at the end of Namaz?
Yes, even intentionally not
reciting the 3 takbeers at the end of Namaz will not affect the Namaz. The Namaz will be considered valid since it is not
part of Namaz. Namaz ends with Salam
(salutations). The 3 takbeers are
like ‘Ta’qeeb’ (the prayers recited after the Namaz).
Q20. Can you say a Dua in Qunoot other than in
in your own words) in a Wajib (obligatory) Namaz?
A. In a Wajib (obligatory) Namaz one can
say Dua in Qunoot. He can ask Allah
Ta’ala anything in his own language.
Q21. A Mu’min learns that the direction of
Qibla which he is facing for offering the Namaz for the last three years was
not the correct one. What should he
If the Mu’min investigated
properly and later he learnt that it is incorrect his prayer would be valid. If the true Qibla is not more than 90 degrees away
then his Namaz would be valid.
Otherwise, he will have to offer the Qaza (Remedy) of it again.
Q22. Is it required for a woman to recite Fajr,
Maghrib and Isha prayers loudly?
No, it is not compulsory like it
is for men but she can, if she is sure no “Namahram” (one other than a close
relative) is likely to hear her voice.
Q23. Can a woman offer Namaz standing ahead of
Namaz is not invalidated, but it
is better if she offers behind the men.
Q24. Can one recite Salawat or Isteghfar in any
part of Wajib (obligatory) Namaz?
One can recite and later continue with the Namaz.
Q25. Is it wrong to pray in the dark?
It is not wrong. It may help increase one’s concentration. Or one may not like to disturb others while
performing night prayers. If it
helps one to have greater attention and sincerity during Namaz, it may even be
preferable. Yet, it is not Mustahab
to pray in the dark.
Q26. Can a Mo’min, whose house is near the
mosque, pray at home?
A. Except out of necessity and
emergency, the Mo’min should offer all his Namaz at the mosque. If a thing is worth Rs.
50, would you sell it for Re. 1? At
home, there is Sawaab of only one Namaz but the Namaz offered in the mosque
carries 100 times more Sawaab.
According to a Riwayat, there is no Namaz in the neighbourhood of a mosque but
Q27. How should a businessman offer his Namaz
& fasting when he regularly makes trips outside where he cannot stay for 10
If the businessman goes now
& then, on a regular or irregular basis, he will offer complete (Tamaam)
Namaz & observe his Wajib (obligatory) fasting.
Q28. Can one offer Namaz while travelling in a
One cannot offer Namaz while
travelling in a lorry, train or any vehicle since it is necessary that the
people of prostration should be static.
Only when the situation is such that, throughout the journey there is no
possibility of the vehicle stopping and the time of Namaz is bound to lapse
before the vehicle stops at a place, one can offer the Namaz in the vehicle.
Q29. Is it permissible to play taped Azaan even
though persons may be present who can give the prayer-call?
It is permissible provided it is
played at the right time of prayer.
Q30. Will Namaz be considered valid where the
person doing prostration has long toe-nails touching the floor?
Namaz will not be valid if only
the toe-nails touch the floor in prostration and not the toes. A true Muslim should not be careless about
personal hygiene such that his nails remain uncut for so long.
Q31. Is it permitted to place one’s forehead
during Sajdah on written paper?
In the absence of proper
material for Sajdah, one can use written or printed paper, provided, the paper
is not painted or coloured, because that makes a layer on the paper.
Q32. Can a person wear a gold-plated watch
Men are not allowed to wear
anything of gold or gold plated, not only during prayers, but at all times. This rule does not apply to women.
Q33. Can a person wear a belt or watchstrap
made from snake-skin?
Namaz will be rendered invalid. Even one hair of an animal which is not edible, is
not allowed to be carried during prayer.
Q34. How does one know that the time of Maghrib
Namaz has arrived?
A redness appears on the eastern
horizon after sunset and it is followed by darkness.
When this redness disappears in the sky over one’s head, then it indicates the
beginning time for the Maghrib Namaz.
Q35. What should one do in case of discovering
seminal discharge in the morning and there being insufficient time for taking a
bath for morning prayers?
When the time left for a prayer
is so little that after having ghusl (bath), the whole prayer cannot be
finished in time, the person should perform tayammum and then offer his prayers. And the person will offer his later prayers after
having ghusl (bath).
Q36. Some people pray very fast. They don’t even get up after Ruku and go to Sajdah
immediately. Is the Namaz right or
After “Ruku” it is “Wajib
(obligatory) “to stand up before going to Sajdah.
It is wrong to go to Sajdah before one stands up straight after Ruku. The Namaz will be considered as (baatil).
Five things are compulsory
(wajib) for ruku:
bow upto the extent that your finger tips touch the knees.
recite “Subhana rabbial azeemay wa bay hamde” once or 3 times “subhaanallah” i.e. “zikr-e-ruku”. This can also be any other “zikr”.
remain steady, and stationary in the bowing position whilst reciting the “zikr-e-ruku”.
up completely from ruku.
steadily for a moment before going for sajdah.
for those who do not stand before going to sajdah will miss two wajib
(obligatory) no. 4 and no. 5.
Q37. Is it wajib (obligatory) to recite
Salawaat when one hears the name of Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) during wajib (obligatory) or sunnat (recommended)
It is “mustahab” (recommended)
to recite Salawaat whenever you hear Mohammad (s.a.w.a.)’s name or whenever any one gives a call even
during wajib (obligatory) Namaz.
Hence one should recite Salawaat and then continue the Namaz from where he
Q38. If someone prays “furada” (separately) in
a jamaat Namaz (congregation). What
is the position of Namaz for those in the Jamaat?
There is no harm at all for
those in the Jamaat Namaz. If two
persons adjoining each other are praying “Furada” then they will separate two
parts of the line of Jamaat. But if
two people adjoining each other are in the first line of the Jamaat then those
who are praying away from the Pesh Namaz (person leading the prayer) will be
separated from the Imaam’s Jamaat.
Those who pray in the second or third lines or further, their Namaz is not
effected even if any number of people pray furada because their connection is
not broken with the Jamaat.
Travellers when praying “Qasr” Namaz generally leave after praying two rakats;
it has no effect on the Jamaat Namaz of others in the congregation. If however you are sure that you have been
separated from the Jamaat then you will recite Al-hamd & the next Surah.
Q39. Where should one be looking during the
In qiyam (standing), look at the
place of prostration; in ruku between the two feet, while prostrating, between
the two palms and during tashahhud, between the two folded knees. Looking around would make Namaz void.
Q40. Would Namaz be valid where the clothes
worn by the person has been bought from money who’s Khums has not been paid?
A. If clothes have been bought by money
on which Khums is due and it is not paid, Namaz is void and unlawful. But if the clothes are bought before the date of
paying Khums is due, one can perform Namaz with them.
Q41. Can a person on whom ghusl (bath) ‘Mass-e-Mayyat’
(for touching the corpse) is incumbent, offer his daily prayers with Wuzu
He cannot offer Namaz before
performing ghusl (bath) “Mass-e-Mayyat”.
It is obligatory to perform ghusl (bath) when a person touches a corpse, after
it has become cold and before it has been given the “Ghusl-e-Mayyat”.
Q42. When we say “Aameen” at the end of
supplications (Dua), why can’t we say after Surah al-Hamd in congregational
To say “aameen” (May He will it)
at the end of yours or another person’s supplication is appropriate. But in a congregational prayer, if it is said
intentionally as part of the Namaz, the Namaz will become void since it is an
innovation (Bid’at). Imam Mohammad
al Baqir (a.s.)
said in a tradition: “Do not say after qira’at (Ameen).
You may say if you want Alhamdo Lillah Rabbil Aalameen”.
Another tradition from Imam Ja’far as-Sadiq (a.s.) is that when one mo’min asked him: “Shall I say
after Al-Hamd (Ameen)?” Imam (a.s.) said: “No”.
Both these Riwayats and others also are mentioned in the famous book Wasail
al-Shia of al-Hur Al-Aameli. The
reason of not allowing Ameen in Namaaaz is clear from other Riwayat in which
Imam Sadiq (a.s.) said: “Indeed Christians used to say (Ameen)”. It has been recommended to say “Alhamdo-lillahe-Rabbil-Aalameen”. You may say “Aameen” at the end of ‘Qunoot’
(praying with raised hands in the second Rak’at) but not after Surah Al-Hamd.
Q43. What should a person do who does not know
whether the Namaz he missed on a journey should be offered completely or halved
If the person had stayed for 9,
or less than 9 days, he will offer all the 4 ra’kat Namaz in half. And if the person has stayed for 10, or more than
10 days, he will offer complete Namaz for all the days plus 9 days of Qasr
Q44. Is it necessary that there should be a
curtain between a Namahram (one other than a close relative) male and female
while performing Namaz?
It is not necessary. When people go for Hajj or to any of the shrines
of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.), they do not see any strict segregation. It is done only to avoid the chances of sin which
arises from inter-mingling. For the
same reason, it is better that in an open room or hall, men should pray ahead
and women behind.
Q45. Is it necessary that while saying Takbeeratul
Ehram or wherever “Allaho Akbar” is said in the Namaz, one should raise both
It is mustahab (recommended) to
raise both hands while saying “Allaho Akbar” during Namaz.
But it is not Wajib (obligatory).
There are two ways of doing it. (1)
By making the thumbs of both hands reach upto the ears, and (2) up to the neck.
Q46. Can a person suffering from “Burs”
(leucoderma) lead a congregational prayer?
The person suffering from “Burs”
can be Imaam-e-Jama’at (congregational leader).
Only diseases which affect mobility of the body and cause recurrent urinary or
stomach disorders can prevent a person from leading congregational prayers.
Q47. Can one offer Namaz behind a person who is
praying a “Mustahab” (recommended) Namaz?
The Namaz of both the Imam (the leader) and Ma’mun (the follower) should be of
Q48. In Namaz can a person change Niyyat? If he
is praying Zohr Namaz and suddenly remembers in the First Rak’at or 2nd Rak’at
that his Namaz-e-Subh was Qaza, so can he change his Niyyat from Zohr to Subh
Namaz? If yes, then how is it possible? I think Niyyat is Rukn of Namaz and if
one adds or subtracts Rukn knowingly or unknowingly, his Namaz is invalid,
please elaborate the matter.
In this case his Niyyat of Namaz
will not be disturbed, which means he is not actually cancelling his Niyyat of
praying Namaz. The only change is
the name of Namaz will change. The
original niyyat of praying Namaz still holds good.
The example you have mentioned is one of the examples in which you can change
the Niyyat of Namaz. Since you know
that Namaz-e-Subh was Qaza on you, you can change the Niyyat. Thereafter you can pray the Namaz of the time
Q49. It is permissible to do Sajdah
(prostration) on paper but not on glass, although both are not natural elements
and tempered by fire. Why this
Although both are manufactured
items, Islam has permitted us to do Sajdah on paper, as well as pure sand,
natural stone or wood, leaf but not on glass.
We have a “nass” (clear verdict) regarding paper’s permissibility from Ahlul
narrated from Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.). One
reason could be that paper to a large extent, retains the nature of its origin
that is wood and leaves. Metals like
silver, gold, copper etc. are also
not permissible for sajdah.
Q50. Will the traveller offer complete or
halved prayers in the course of the journey in which the person has intention
of staying for 10 days upon reaching the destination?
The traveller will offer “Qasr”
(halved) prayers in the course of the journey, and when he reaches the place
where he intends to stay for 10 days or more, his Namaz will be complete.
Q51. What should be the correct distance
between the two feet while standing for prayers?
It is recommended to have the
gap between the two feet equivalent to one span of one’s hand. It is permissible if the gap is more or less.
Q52. Should a congregational Namaz or a person
praying individually abandon Namaz if it starts raining?
A. The person or a congregation cannot
abandon the Namaz. Rain is not fire
such that it endangers life. The
Namaz should be completed under the rainy conditions.
Q53. Can one offer one’s Namaz separately at
the time of commencement of congregational prayers since the head of the
congregation is not a just person?
The person cannot offer his
Namaz separately during the congregational prayers.
It can be performed after the congregational prayer concludes. The person in such a situation should perform his
Namaz in the congregation with the intention of furada (individual) prayer.
Q54. What should a person do if he mistakenly
completes Namaz-e-Maghrib by reciting salaam after the 2nd rak’at?
If the person remembers his
mistake after reciting the salaam, he should get up and complete the Namaz. He should then do 2 Sajadah-e-Sahw.
Q55. Is it necessary to wear a cap while
performing the Namaz?
There is increased sawab
(reward) for the one praying.
Although wearing an Ammama (turban) is better, there is nothing wrong if the
person does not cover his head while praying.
It is not obligatory.
Q56. Is it permissible to use a sajdagah for
prostration, which has some inscription or verses of the Holy Qur’an or writing
or the outline of a mosque on it?
It is permissible.
Q57. If a person either on expedition or on
service resides in a region such as North or South Pole, where more than 24
hours is either day or night, how can one perform fasting or Namaz in such a
For one who lives in a Polar
region, it is obligatory on the person to migrate to a place where one can
easily observe fasting and offer prayers.
possible, the person may follow the time-table of the nearest region having
normal days and nights. Otherwise,
on the basis of precaution, the person should offer daily prayers five times in
every 24 hours and observe fast consecutively for twelve-hour durations every
twenty-four hours, for 30 days in a year.
Q58. Is it permissible to join a congregational
prayer being lead by an Imam-e-Jama’at of the Zaidiya sect?
Yes, provided your intention
(niyyat) should be that you are reciting this prayer individually (furadah),
and the recitation of Surah “Al-Fateha” followed by another Surah is obligatory
Q59. After doing Ghusl-e-Jumah, is it necessary
to offer Namaz-e-Jumah, before performing acts, which require Wuzu?
It is not necessary to offer
Namaz-e-Jumah before performing acts, which require Wuzu.
The person can for instance, offer Namaz before Namaz-e-Jumah after doing
Q60. Can a person who has offered his Friday
prayers also offer his Zohr Namaz in congregation?
The person can offer his Zohr
Namaz in congregation with the intention of seeking Allah’s Pleasure (Qurbatan Elallaah).
Q61. It is not necessary to touch the toes on
bare ground while prostrating in Namaz.
So why can’t a person wear shoes in Namaz when he is permitted to wear socks
and stand on a covered ground?
There are shoes whose front
portions are not covered, allowing the big toes to touch the floor, which can
be worn during Namaz. Other than
this, it is not permissible to wear other types of shoes during Namaz. One probable reason could be that removing
footwear is considered to be a sign of humility, which is one of the main parts
of submission before one’s Creator, Nourisher and Sustainer.
Q62. Would Namaz be valid, where the person
does not recite “Allaho Akbar’ other than the ‘Takbeeratul Ehraam’?
The Namaz is valid. Except ‘Takbeeratul Ehraam’, which is obligatory,
all other ‘Takbeer’ (recitation of ‘Allaho Akbar’) are only recommendatory in
Q63. Is it permissible to offer complete Namaz
or qasr Namaz anywhere inside the cities of Makkah and Medina if one’s stay is for less than ten
It is permissible.
Q64. During Friday prayer’s sermons, can one
recite supplications or Namaz?
It is not permissible to offer
Namaz during the course of the sermons of Friday prayer.
It is Ehtiyat to listen to the sermons with care.
Q65. If the Pesh Namaz (leader of a
congregational prayer) becomes ill and cannot continue the Namaz, what should
One believer from the
congregation, who has all the qualifications of leading the congregational
prayer, should step forward and continue the Namaz.
If the life of the leader of the congregational prayer is in danger, Namaz can
be left incomplete to take care of him.
Depending on the need, if, however, one person can take care of him, it would
be haram for others to abandon the Namaz.
Q66. How many people are necessary to offer
Namaz in congregation (including the pesh Namaz) for: a) daily Namaz, b) Namaz
during unusual natural events, c) Namaz for the dead and d) Friday prayers?
For Friday prayers if five
persons (including the Pesh Namaz) are present congregation would be valid. For offering other congregational prayers, it
would be sufficient if at least two persons (including the Pesh Namaz) are
Q67. Is it necessary to know all the rules
about tackling doubts during Namaz for a person who offers his Namaz
A. It is Wajib (obligatory) (necessary)
for a person to know all the rules about Namaz if he offers it individually,
especially those, which are absolutely necessary.
Q68. Would Namaz be valid if the person while
prostrating does not bring all the seven parts of his body to rest on the
If the person intentionally does
not rest all the seven parts on the ground, his Namaz will be invalid. But if it is done out of physical compulsions, it
would be okay.
Q69. Is it permissible to raise one’s voice
while saying “Allaho Akbar” or make a sign with one’s hand during Namaz to draw
somebody’s attention to something?
If making a sign with one’s hand
does not change the form of prayers and if “Allaho Akbar” is uttered with the
object of recitation, and simultaneously the voice is raised in order to draw
another person’s attention to something, there is no harm in it. However, if a person utters a word, consisting of
one or more letter like “Oh” intentionally, though it may carry no meaning, his
prayers will become void. Although,
there is no harm in coughing, belching or sighing during prayers.
Q70. Can one recite Surah Al-Hamd instead of Tasbihaat-e-Arba
in the third and fourth units (Rak’ats) of Namaz?
It is permissible and on the
basis of obligatory precaution, it’s “Bismillah” should be recited in a low
Q71. Is Friday prayer obligatory for women and
Friday prayer is not obligatory
for old, sick and blind men, women, travellers and those staying more than 11
kms. away from the nearest place
where Friday prayers are being held.
Q72. Is it permissible to offer Namaz on a
If the place, where the forehead
of the person offering Namaz is rested is higher than four joined fingers, from
the place of his toes, his Namaz is void.
On the basis of precaution, even if it is done by mistake, the person should
offer the prayers again after completing it.
Q73. Can Eid prayers be offered individually?
During the present times, when the Holy Imam (a.s.) is in occultation, Eid prayers are recommended
and can be offered individually.
Q74. How should a woman lead a congregation of
women in prayers?
If the Imam (the congregational
leader) and the followers are both women, the obligatory precaution is that all
of them should stand in a row and the Imam should not stand ahead of others.
Q75. Can a woman be hired to offer lapsed
prayers of a dead man?
A woman can be hired to offer
lapsed prayers of a dead man and in the matter of offering prayers loudly or in
low voice, she should act according to her own obligation.
Q76. Can a person recite Surah al-Hamd and
Surah in a congregational prayer?
It is necessary for a follower
in a congregational prayer to recite all the things of the prayers himself,
except Surah al-Hamd and Surah. In
the first and second unit of midday and afternoon prayers, it is recommended
that the follower should utter some recital (e.g. Subhanallah) And if he does not hear the voice of
the Imam in the first and second unit of the dawn, dusk and night prayers, it
is recommended that he should recite Surah Hamd and Surah in a low voice. But if he recites them loudly by mistake there is
no harm in it.
Q77. Offering congregational prayers is a
highly recommended act but showing-off one’s piety is a major sin. So am I not justified in abstaining from
congregational prayers because of fear of committing ‘Riya’ (simulation)?
If a person intends to attend a
congregational prayer for the sake of Allah and does so, he need not suspect
his own intention and deprive himself of the unlimited rewards of
the first place, the possibility of simulation does not invalidate prayer. Moreover, this kind of fear is one of the devices
of Satan aimed at restraining a believer from virtuous deeds.
Q78. Is it true that a traveller cannot shorten
his prayers if he undertakes the journey against the wishes of his parents?
If the travelling is obligatory
fulfilling a permissible promise or pilgrimage to Makkah) the objection of the
parents is not relevant and the prayers should be shortened on the journey. But if the travelling is not obligatory and the
person is performing an unlawful act, hence he/she should offer complete
prayers on the journey.
Q79. How should a person, whose forehead is
covered by a wound, offer prayers?
If there is a sore or something
on the forehead of a person he should, if possible, offer prostration on the
healthy part of his forehead. And if
this is not possible he should dig the earth and place the sore in the cavity
and as much of the healthy part of his forehead on the earth as is sufficient
for prostration. If the sore or
would has covered the entire forehead, he should on the basis of precaution
perform prostration with one of the two sides of forehead and chin.
Q80. Non Shia Muslims assert that turning one’s
back to the Qibla and speaking during Namaz (prayer) is allowed on the basis of
narratives in “Sahih” of Bukhari and Muslim, wherein Abu Hurayra relates how
Zolyadain (Adb-o-Amr ibn Nazlah) reminded the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) when
he forgot that it was a three or four rak’at (unit) prayer and moved away after
completing two rak’at. Is this
The Litmus-test of a narrative’s
authenticity is that it should be in harmony with Qur’an’s directives. And Allah informs us that the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) was
safeguarded from forgetfulness: “We will make you recite so you shall not
Allah affirms that the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) is not forgetful, then we reject the works of all
those who say to the contrary. Next,
history informs us that Zolyadain was martyred in the second year of migration
in the battle of Badr and Abu Hurayra came to Medina almost five years after Zolyadain’s
may also judge the credibility of Abu Hurayra as well as the claims to
authenticity of these “Sahih” books by what Bukhari quotes in his “Sahih” and what
Ahmad ibn Hanbal quotes in his “Musnad”. Both
have related that when Abu Hurayra was asked whether he heard what he just
quoted from the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) himself, he said: “No, I didn’t hear it from the
Prophet (s.a.w.a.), in
truth it is from Abu Hurayra’s sack.”
Q81. What are the main differences between the
doctrines of Mu’tazilites and Shi’ites?
Some of the main differences
between the doctrines of Mu’tazilites and Shi’ites are as follows:
upholds the absolute supremacy of reason while Shi’ites accept the authority of
reason with the conditions that it should be guided by the dictates of
Shi’ite believes in “Shafa’ah” (intercession) while the Mu’tazilites refutes it
in the case of committers of major sins.
Shi’ite believes that the Imams (a.s.) are divinely appointed by the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) to
guide the community in both religious and secular matters.
Mu’tazilites, on the other hand, regards the Imam as the head of the community
in administrative, military and judicial matters, stripping him of his role of
believes in deriving judgements through rational interpretation of existing
facts while Mu’tazilites uses ‘Qiyas’ (analogy) in deriving judgements.
Q82. Can a carpet or ‘Mohr’ (clay tablets for
prostration) which has been endowed in a mosque be taken to a Husayniyah
(religious place) adjacent to it for offering prayers?
A. The carpet or ‘Mohr’ which has been
endowed in a mosque cannot be taken to the Husayniyah even though it may be
near the mosque.
Q83. What is the position of my prayers wherein
the private parts are accidentally exposed while offering prayers?
If a person realizes while
offering prayers that his private parts are visible, what is more apparent is
that his prayer is void.
Q84. Is it necessary to offer prayers facing
all four directions if one cannot locate the Qibla?
If a person does not possess any
means to locate the direction of Qibla, or in spite of his efforts he cannot
form an idea about it, it is sufficient for him to offer his prayers facing any
one direction. And the recommended
precaution is that if he has sufficient time at his disposal, he should offer
the same prayers four times, facing every one of the four directions once.
Q85. Should a person first place his hands on
the ground or his knees while going into prostration?
While going into prostration it
is recommended that a man should first place his hands (palms) on the ground
and a woman should first place her knees on the ground.
Q86. Does moving hands and feet during prayers
When a person is reciting
obligatory things in the prayers, his body should be still. And when he wishes to go a little backward or
forward or to move a little towards right or left, he should not recite
anything at that time.
Q87. What is the order regarding prayers which
are offered before its time or after its prescribed time has passed?
If a person realizes that he has
offered the prayers before its time set in, he should offer that prayer again
when it is due. And if he offers it
and later realizes that its prescribed time has passed before he could offer
even one rak’at he should offer it’s Qaza (lapsed prayer) again. Except, of course, when a person does not offer
Maghrib (dusk) or Isha (night) prayers till midnight he should on the basis of
obligatory precaution, offer the prayers before the dawn prayers, without
making an intention of offering the two prayers in time or as lapsed ones.
Q88. Can a person perform prostration on a carpet
if there is danger to his life?
In case the person can perform
prostration on a mat, marbled floor or any other thing on which it is lawful to
perform prostration, he/she should perform prostration on it, if there is no
hardship involved. In that event the
person should not perform prostration on a carpet or any other similar thing. But if there is danger from an enemy and there is
no alternative, the person can perform prostration on a carpet.
Q89. Is a traveller, who offers complete
prayers and recollects after the time is over, required to offer qaza (remedy)
of that prayer?
If a traveller offers a complete
4 rak’at prayers and recollects after the prescribed time is over, it is not
obligatory for him to offer qaza of that prayer.
If he recollects within the time prescribed for the prayer, he should offer
Q90. Can one turn the intention from ‘Qaza’
(lapsed) prayers to ‘Ada’
(in time) prayers?
It is not permissible to turn
one’s intention from Qaza to the prayers which are offered within the
Q91. Is the prayer, which was delayed
intentionally and offered with tayammum, when its time was coming to an end,
The prayer which was delayed
intentionally and offered with tayammum when it’s time was coming to an end is
valid but the person has committed a sin and it is better that the prayers be
Q92. What should a person do, who has offered
prayer with dress made impure by the wetness of an unbeliever, without being
aware of the rule?
The prayers of a person offered
with dress made impure by the wetness of an unbeliever on account of not
knowing the rule is void and he should offer Qaza of the prayers if its time
Q93. Is it necessary to know to whom one is
saluting while reciting the Salams at the end of the Namaz? (i.e.
Assalamo Alaika ayyohan Nabiyyo wa rahmatullahe wa Barakaato, Assalamo Alainaa
wa ala ebaadillahis Salehin, Assalamo Alaikum wa Rahmatullahe Wa
It is better to know the meaning
of all the things one recites in the course of a Namaz, including Salam. But the person, who recites the Salams at the end
of the Namaz, without knowing its meaning, has discharged his obligations and
his Namaz is valid.
Q94. Is it necessary to offer prayers when one
enters a mosque?
It is recommended that a person
who enters a mosque should offer a two-unit prayer as a mark of reverence to
the mosque and it also suffices if an obligatory or recommended prayer is
Q95. What does Islam say about reciting Azaan
in a musical style?
If Azaan and Iqamah are recited
in a rhythmical way so that it becomes music i.e. if he pronounces Azaan and Iqamah like
professional singers who sing in pleasure parties to amuse the people it is
unlawful and if it does not become music it is abominable.
Q96. Should a person, whose profession requires
him to travel for work, offer shortened or complete prayers when he travels for
another purpose to the same place?
Persons who reside at one place
and work at another (in connection with business, education, etc.) should offer complete prayers. However, if he travels for another purpose like
visiting a relative, for instance, he should offer shortened prayers.
Q97. What are the prayer orders for a person
who travels to take pilgrims to Makkah or other holy places?
If the profession of the person
who takes pilgrims to Makkah or other holy places is travelling, he should
offer complete prayers. And if his
profession is not travelling and he travels only during Hajj days for the
purpose of courier ship, the obligatory precaution is that he should offer
shortened as well as complete prayers.
Q98. Does looking at the Holy Qur’an or a ring
Looking at the writing of the
Holy Qur’an or a ring during prayers is undesirable but does not invalidate the
prayers. In fact every such act
which disturbs attention and humility is undesirable.
Q99. Is it wrong to offer prayers at a place
where people are walking here and there?
It is not valid to offer prayers
at a place where there is no surety of completing the prayers. However, if people are walking here or there it is
recommended to place something such as a string or stick before his place of
Are we allowed to pray Namaz-e-Zohr,
before the commencement of Friday sermon, confirming the due time of
Namaz-e-Zohr which falls earlier during some seasons?
Friday prayer is offered in place of Namaz-e-Zohr.
According to Ayatullah Seestani, Friday prayer consists of two Rak’at like Fajr
prayers. The difference between
these two prayers is that Namaz-e-Jumah has two sermons before it. Namaz-e-Jumah is Wajib-e-Takhiri which means that
we have an option to offer Jumah prayers, if its necessary conditions are
fulfilled, or to offer Zohr prayers.
Hence if Namaz-e-Jumah is offered then it is not necessary to offer Zohr prayer.
following conditions must be fulfilled for Jumah prayers to become obligatory:
1. The time for Jumah prayers should
have set in. And that means that the
midday time should have begun to decline.
The time for Namaz-e-Jumah is the earliest part of Zohr.
If it is very much delayed, then Namaz-e-Jumah time will be over, and Zohr
Namaz will have to be prayed.
2. The number of persons joining
Namaz-e-Jumah should be at least five including the Imam.
If there are less than five people, Namaz-e-Jumah would not become obligatory.
3. The Imam should fulfil the necessary
conditions for leading the prayers.
4. Namaz-e-Jumah should be offered in
congregation. It cannot be prayed
5. The distance between the two places
where Namaz-e-Jumah are offered should not be less than one Farsakh (3 miles).
What are the qualifications of a peshnamaz
(leader of congregational prayer)?
He must be (a) Isna Ashari, (b)
Sane, (c) He must be ‘Adil’. It
means that he does not commit big sins even unintentionally; & if he
commits any small sin (not intentionally) he repents at once & does not
repeat it, (e) He must have correct pronunciation of Arabic words, (f) He must
be a man (if he is leading in a prayer attended by men), and (g) He must not be
praying sitting (if the people behind him are praying standing); also (h) he
must know the necessary ‘Masael’ of Taharat and prayers.
The views of the Ulema differ
regarding the (direction of the) Qibla from New York
and similar places in North America. Can you explain in some detail how we are to face
the Qibla from there?
Facing the Qibla from distant
places which have the curvature of the earth between them and the revered Ka’bah
is determined by the parallel lines that commence from the front of the body of
the person praying and the lines of curvature that arch around the surface of
the earth in the direction of the revered Ka’bah, in such a manner that the
lines end there (the Ka’bah), even if it is only by probability. The direction of the lines may be established on a
globe by connecting the position of the person praying to the revered Ka’bah by
a thread — ensuring that it remains on a direct course, rather than veering
left or right. According to our
tests, the direction of this thread from areas such as New
York in North America is to the
East, yielding to the North by the degree indicated by the aforementioned
thread. As for those who say that
Mecca lies beneath the 22nd parallel, New York falls above the 40th parallel,
and this requires that the person in New York must face the direction of the
honoured Ka’bah by bearing to the South rather than to the North, the answer to
this is as follows: This holds true if one uses a flat map as opposed to a
global one. The change in the
direction of the abovementioned thread on a global model is a result of the
portions lying between the two points, if it is viewed in relation to the North
and South poles. The support for
this is that, if we neglect and do not take into consideration the four
cardinal points on the globe, and we turned around a global map putting Mecca
in the summit, as if it were the North Pole, we would observe that the
direction of the abovementioned thread (in a situation for a person in New
York) would be exactly the same as that obtained by the earlier mentioned
thread. The person in New York who wants to
face the direction of the revered Ka’bah must take this direction and not veer
towards the right. In short, in our
opinion, what is more likely in the method of facing the direction is as
explained in the foregoing. It is
clearly the better position also with regard to the necessity of observing the
imaginary line that passes through the earth directly between the position of
the person praying and the Ka’bah.
Since it is not possible to face the direction of this (imaginary) line during
prayer, it is necessary to follow the direction of the line of curvature
parallel to it, and which goes over the surface of the earth. The parallel line just mentioned is the same as
that which we already pointed out, whose direction from New York is towards northeast. Even so, however, the prayer of a person facing
southeast would be valid if he is acting on a firm shar’i proof in his possession
to that effect. God knows best.
What if he were to travel three or
four times a week during the year, not because his job demands travelling, but
for other purposes like sight-seeing and tourism or for treating a patient,
visiting the shrines of the Imams (a.s.), etc.
What is the ruling on his prayers?
He should perform complete
prayers and observe the fasts, since given his situation he is considered a
frequent traveller according to convention.
If he were to travel twice a week and stay five days in his hometown [then it
is obligatory for him to offer both the short (qasr) and the complete
(prayers); and, in the month of Ramazan, to combine observance of the fasts in
it (Ramazan) and their qaza after it].
A man is wearing a watch whose strap
is made of natural leather imported from a non-Muslim country and he does not
know whether the leather is from the skin of an animal slaughtered in the
Islamic manner or not. The belt on
his pants is made from the same kind of leather.
Does he have to remove them when he intends to offer prayer?
His prayer is valid with them as
long as there is a strong probability that the strap or the belt is from the
skin of an animal whose flesh is edible and that was slaughtered in the sharai
What about a wallet placed inside the
pocket during prayer if it is made of the same leather as the strap previously
One is permitted to offer prayer
Suppose that he is confident that the
strap or the belt is made from the skin of an animal that was not slaughtered
in the Islamic manner but he prays with it due to forgetfulness and then
remembers while praying, and immediately removes his watch or belt.
His prayer is valid unless his
forgetfulness is due to carelessness and not giving due importance to the
matter [in which case he is obliged to repeat his prayer].
Sometimes I intend to pray and there
are some white pieces of paper in my pocket.
Is it permissible for me to perform prostration on them?
Yes, it is permissible for you
to prostrate on them if they are ritually pure and made out of wood-pulp or
similar material on which prostration is permissible.
The same rule applies if they are made of cotton or linen.
A mukallaf (person who is to pray) offers
Morning Prayer in his city and then travels in a westerly direction. He arrives in a city in which the dawn has not yet
appeared and then emerges. Or, he
offers noon prayer in his city and then travels by air, arriving in a city
where the sun has not begun to go down (noon), and only later begins its
descent. Or, he offers the evening
prayer in it (city), and then travels to a city where the sun has not yet set,
and then sets. Is he obliged to
repeat the prayer in all these hypothetical situations?
There are two perspectives. It is a better precaution (to repeat the prayer),
although apparently it is not (obligatory to repeat it).
Q109. There are extended cities with adjoining
borders and sides which, in the past, were reckoned to be separate cities, but
after prosperous growth, became one city.
Do you regard them as one or several cities? A person travels from the farthest
point in the East (of the city) with the intention of travelling to another
place, and the time for prayer comes when he is at the farthest westerly point
(of the city). He wishes to pray. Should he pray qasr or does he pray complete? And
similarly, if he returns from a journey to the outskirts (of the city), and the
time for prayer comes, does he pray qasr, or complete? What about the person
who is fasting, and leaves (the city) or returns to it?
The hypothetical cities all
count as one. The rulings of
separate cities do not actually apply to this case.
True, the rule with respect to computing the distance is from the point at which
the term traveller (musafir) becomes applied to someone.
Were this city truly one of the larger cities and the term (traveller) is
applied upon the exit of a person from his zone or area of residence, even if
it is deemed to be inside the city, then the ruling of traveller applies on him. And the distance would be computed from this
point, which is considered hadd al-tarakhkhus (the prescribed distance) with
respect to that person. If the term
(traveller) does not apply to him unless he leaves the (larger) city, then the
last region of the city is to be counted as the beginning for distance
measurement with respect to him. God
Is one entitled to object to the
holding of Friday prayer by claiming that the Marjas of the Muslims in Najaf
and Qum do not establish it, while knowing that in the city in which the
mukallaf resides, most of the residents perform Friday prayer on the basis of
A. One is not entitled to do that. As for non-holding of Friday (prayer) by the
Marjas, who are of the opinion that it (Friday prayer) is superior to zohr
(prayer) and the former replacing it (zohr), may be due to personal excuses or
the like. This does not prevent
others from establishing it (Friday prayer).
God knows best.
I was praying behind one of the
brothers, and I noticed that he had recited another Surah after Al-Fatihah in
the 3rd and 4th rak’at. I told him
that he is not supposed to do that.
The question is whether all his prayers are void or not, and whether my prayer,
behind him, is void as well. Please
answer according to Ayatullah Seestani.
In the 3rd and the 4th Rakaat,
we are allowed to recite Tasbeehat-e-Arba’ or Surah Alhamd. If the person did it (recited another Surah)
purposely, his Namaz is void. If he
did not know the Mas’ala nor did it forgetfully, then the Namaz is not void.
Will the prayer of a person be valid
if one offers it on a property: a) purchased with the money on which Khums was
not taken out, b) Or one is living in a house on rent but not paying the rent
to the owner of the house, c) Or one is offering Namaz in a house for which the
owner of the house has asked him to vacate the house but he does not vacate it.
A. (a) If the property was purchased
with money on which khums was wajib (obligatory) and still not paid, then the
person on whom khums was wajib (obligatory) and did not pay, will be
responsible. Only his prayer in that
property will be doubtful. Some of
ulema say it is invalid. (b) It is
Haraam (unlawful) to rent a house and not pay the rent.
This place will be then Ghazbi and then the prayer of the person responsible
(Ghaasib) at this place will be invalid.
(c) If the owner has the right to ask the tenant to vacate according to valid
agreement or common practice then the tenant has to vacate, otherwise he will
become a Ghaasib, whose prayer at that place is not valid.
Is it obligatory for the eldest son to
offer Qaza prayers of his father and mother both and if so how it should be
Yes it is obligatory for the
eldest son to perform the Qaza Namaz and fasting of his father and mother. It can be performed gradually. He also can make somebody else to perform it
either by paying him some money (Ijaaraa) or voluntarily.
If another son or daughter performed the Qaza of their parents, it will suffice
and they will get the reward of it besides releasing their parents from the
Q114. Is there a time limit in which Maghrib
Namaz has to be completed? E.g. within 10 to 15 minutes from sunset or start of
Maghrib? If this time has elapsed then does are have to pray Qaza Namaz or upto
what time it will be Adaa?
Maghrib Namaz time starts from
10 to 15 minutes after sunset depending on geographical situation, which is
called (Maghrib time) and continues till few minutes before midnight. These few minutes before midnight are for Isha
Namaz. This is in the usual cases,
while the Maghrib and Isha Namaz time goes further till before Fajr in unusual
a person who was unconscious, or a woman who became Paak after midnight etc. they have to pray Maghrib and Isha Namaz as Adaa
not Qaza, till Fajr time.
What is the exact timing of offering
Namaz-e-Shab? How can we calculate the time of midnight, is it 12.00 at night?
Namaz-e-Shab time starts after
Midnight which is the moment which falls at the middle of the period between
sunset and sunrise. Some Ulema say
that it is the mid between sunset and Fajr.
It is not always 12.00. It can be before or after depending on the length
of night and the time of sunset.
time ends just before Fajr. It can
be prayed before its time for those who find it difficult to get up during its
time. It can also be prayed as Qaza
in the daytime or any time if it had not been prayed during its time.
who cannot pray 11 Rakats may pray 3 Rakats (2 of Shaf’a and 1 of Watr) and
even one of Watr alone will be good, at least, Namaz-e-Shab is not missed.
Is it permissible to offer recommended
prayers (Nawafel or Mustahab Namaz) while walking on the road or travelling in
a bus? Is it necessary to make signs with fingers? (Irrespective of whether he
can offer the same at home or not).
Yes it is permissible,
irrespective, of the possibility of offering the recommended Namaz at home or
not. Any kinds of sign-say for
instance, made by the head or hands are valid.
In this case, facing the Qibla is not a necessary condition.
A person offers a Salat (Namaz) after
doing Tayammum instead of Ghusl-e-Janabat, due to lack of water or shortage of
time. If water becomes available for
the next prayer, will it be necessary to have ghusl (bath) or the person can
offer his Salat (Namaz) with Wuzu only?
Yes, the person will have to
immediately take ghusl (bath) when the water becomes available and the person
cannot offer his Salat (Namaz) by Wuzu alone in this particular case.
If a person has never offered ‘Namaz-e-Aayaat’
in his life, is it necessary to offer the ‘Qaza’ for it? How many should be
offered for every year?
It is necessary to offer the ‘Qaza
for it. The person should offer
Namaz-e-Aayaat twice for every year as Qaza.
Can a person perform Namaz-e-Shab
after Namaz-e-Isha if he is certain that he will not be able to get up in the
night or before dawn?
The person in such a situation
can perform his Namaz-e-Shab before going to sleep.
Is it permissible to recite ‘Tasbihat-e-Arba’
only once in obligatory prayers?
It is permissible. Reciting Tasbihat-e-Arba’ thrice is Mustahab.
How should the eldest son offer the
lapsed (Qaza) prayers of his dead mother?
He should act in the matter of
offering prayers according to his own obligation.
Hence, he should offer the lapsed prayers of his mother in respect of dawn,
dusk and night prayers in a loud voice.
Is it necessary to recite Surah Ikhlas
in every Salah?
It is Mustahab (recommended) to
recite Surah Ikhlas at least once in the whole day in one of the obligatory
Can Namaz-e-Mayyat be performed
It is not necessary to remove
shoes in Namaz-e-Mayyat. One does
not require any formal purification such as Wuzu, ghusl (bath) or tayammum. Those who are junub and in condition of Haiz can
also offer it because in truth, it is only a dua.
It is called a Namaz yet there is no Ruku or Sujood in it.
Q124. A person joins the congregational prayers
when they are standing for the 3rd or 4th Rak’at and intentionally goes into
Ruku’ with them without reciting Surah Al-Hamd.
Will his Namaz be considered valid?
The Namaz will be baatil (void). However, if the person doesn’t recite Surah
Al-Hamd unintentionally, and completes his Namaz, it would be valid. Unless one completes the Surah Al-Hamd, one should
not join the congregation even if he were to lag behind.
Will it become incumbent upon a person
to offer Namaz-e-Aayat when he receives the news of sun or moon eclipses
observed at places sharing the same day and night with one’s village or city?
No the condition for
Namaz-e-Aayat is that it should be offered at the place where the eclipse has
Can a sister and brother offer prayers
in congregation (jama’at) by one of them standing as the imam?
Yes they can offer prayers in
congregation provided that the brother is the imam jama’at (congregation
leader), if he fulfills the conditions to lead congregation prayer like adalat
(justice), piety and avoidance of sins, and having a proper recitation (qira’at). The sister cannot be imam jama’at for her brother
or any male, but she can be imam-e-jama’at for females without standing ahead
of them, but in the same line.
What should a person, who does not
know the number of lapsed Namaz he must offer, do?
The person should offer the
lesser number of Qaza (lapsed) Namaz since that is near certainty.
How long does the prime time of Namaz
The prime time for the morning
(Fajr) Namaz is from Azan till the time when the reddishness starts in the East. The usual time for this Namaz is upto sunrise.
prime time for the noon (Zohr) Namaz is from Azan till the time when the length
of the shadow of a thing becomes equal to its real length.
prime time for the afternoon (Asr) Namaz is till the time when the length of
the shadow of a thing becomes double the size of its real length.
usual time for both Zohr and Asr Namaz goes on till before sunset.
prime time for the evening (Maghrib) Namaz is from Azan till the time of the
vanishing of the reddishness after the setting of the sun (Western reddishness).
prime time for the night (Isha) Namaz is up to one-third of the night.
usual time for both Maghrib and Isha Namaz goes on till midnight.
is always highly recommended to perform Namaz at the beginning of it’s time. That is the time when the Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.)
Is it permissible to recite “Azaan”
(call for prayers) for Sunnat (recommended) (optional) and Qaza (lapsed) Namaz?
It is not lawful to say Azaan or
Eqamah before optional prayers or prayers other than daily ones. It is strongly recommended to say Azaan and Eqamah
for Qaza Namaz.
Should the recitations of
Namaz-e-Ehtiyat be read loudly or silently?
Namaz-e-Ehtiyat should always be
In the 3rd Rakat or 4th Rakat if one
has inadvertently started praying Surah al-Hamd in Qiyaam and the person then
remembers that he is in the 3rd Rakat or 4th Rakat, should he complete Surah
al-Hamd or resort back to Tasbeeh Arbah?
He can complete Surah Al-Hamd;
there is no harm at all, because in 3rd or 4th Rakat either “Tasbeeh Arbah” or
Surah Al-Hamd has to be recited.
Please tell me how to recite Namaz
Istikhaara and Namaz Istighfaar?
Namaz Istikhara is two Rakats
like morning Namaz, but it is not obligatory (not wajib (obligatory)). You can recite any Surah after Surah al-Hamd, and
after you complete this Namaz, pray to Allah (s.w.t.) to
guide you to the best option when you are not sure about it. Namaz Istighfaar is the same way, but you pray
after completing the Namaz for forgiveness for you, your parents and momineen.
Is it required for a woman to recite
Fajr, Maghrib and Isha prayers in a loud voice?
No, it is not compulsory like it
is for men, but she can if she is sure no “Na-mahram” is likely to hear her
What are the Nawaafil of the daily
Nawaafil of daily prayers are as
1. 2 rak’ats before Fajr prayer
2. 8 rak’ats before Zohr prayer. These 8 rak’ats are performed in the form of
3. 8 ra’kats before Asr prayer which
are performed also as 2+2+2+2
4. 4 rak’ats (2+2) after Maghrib prayer
5. 2 rak’ats sitting or 1 rak’at
standing after Isha prayer
these nawaafil there is the night nafila which is also called salat al-layl or
Namaz-e-shab, which is one of the greatest of the recommended prayers to be
prayed between midnight and dawn and consists of 11 rakats (2+2+2+2+2+1). It can be minimized to just 3 (2 rakats of Shaf’a
and 1 rak’at of Witr). It also can
be more minimized to just one rak’at of Witr.
If somebody cannot wake up during that period of time then he can perform it
before going to bed any time in the night and if somebody misses praying it he
or she can perform it in daytime as Qaza.
The benefits of praying this night prayer are far greater than can be included
in a book or books.
Q135. Why don’t Shias perform the Namaz (Salat)
at all five times when it is clearly mentioned in the Holy Qur’an? Why so much
A. The Shias follow the Holy Prophet
Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) in
each and every part of the religion.
They pray Zohr and Asr together sometimes and separately at other times, as
they pray Maghrib and Isha prayers, either together or separately. This is exactly what the Holy Prophet Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) used
to do without any exceptional situation like travel or rain or so.
Holy Qur’an too states the times for the daily five prayers as three times
only: “Establish prayers on midday, till the darkness of night, and Fajr.” Also in
Surah Hood, Chapter 11, Verse 114.
Why are the Shia and Sunni Salaat
(prayers) different in some respects? Who is praying correctly and why this
variance in the basic duty of a Muslim?
The Shia pray as the Holy
Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) used to pray.
The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) ordered all Muslims to pray like Him. (Pray as you saw me praying).
Shia do not fold hands during their Salaat (prayers) as it is a bid’at
(innovation) started long after the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.).
Folding hands during Salaat is a bid’at added to Salaat by Umar bin al-Khattab. When Persian prisoners of war were brought to
Madina and they folded their hands before him, he asked them, why they had done
so. They said that it is our habit
to fold hands before great people.
He liked it and ordered his people to do it in their Salaat before Allah. Those who took that order from Umar are following
him, while those who take their religion from the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.)
remained praying as the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) used to pray, i.e. without folding hands.
All the Imams of the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) had stopped people from folding hands during their
Salaat and used to tell them not to follow this Zoarastrian and non-Islamic
hands has no evidence even in the Sunnite books; hence no Sunni sect holds it
as wajib (obligatory). Shafi’ee and
Abu Hanifa and Bin Hanbal and Sufyan al-Sawri said it is not wajib (obligatory).
famous Sunni scholar, Allays Bin Sa’d, said that it is mustahab (recommended)
to keep hands open during Salaat and not to fold them.
Abi Shayba said that Hasan Al-Basri, Mugheera, Ibn Al-Zobair, Ibn Seereen, Ibn
Al-Musayyab, Saeed Bin Jubair and Al-Nakh’ee used to pray open handed and some
of them were against folding hands during Salaat.
Maliki Sunni sect holds that it is makrooh (disliked) to fold hands during
Is it ok to pray in a Sunni mosque?
What is the Shia method of offering wajib (obligatory) prayers behind a Sunni
imam in a jamat?
Yes, it is highly recommended
and very good to pray in any mosque whether managed by Shia or Sunni people, as
all mosques belong to Allah (s.w.t.) and
every mosque is a house of Allah. If
you pray behind a Sunni Imam Jamaat, you must read (silently) Surah Al-hamd and
a short Surah after it in the first and second Rak’ats.
Qonoot is not Wajib (obligatory), so, you can pray with Sunnis without Qonoot
or you may recite it very briefly.
Q138. In our city, Namaz-e-Jumah is held in
masjid A regularly for last more than fifty years.
However, there is an exception to this regularity.
Whenever Id-ul-Fitr or Id-uz-Zuha falls on a Friday, no Namaz-e-Jumah is held. Is this correct?
is another Bait-us-Salaat B located within a radius of less than 5.5 kms from Masjid A.
The management of B wants to start Namaz-e-Jumah in B but not able to do it
because it is located at a distance of 3 kms.
from A. This year, Id-ul-Fitr is
likely to fall on a Friday and as per the practice prevailing in A, no Namaz-e-Jumah
will be performed in A. If Namaz-e-Jumah
is performed in B on the day of Id-ul-Fitr, will they be able to continue it
A. 1. There is no point in not praying Namaz Jumah
in the usual place of Namaz Jumah when Eid falls on Jumah.
2. There is
no objection on praying Namaz Jumah in B Bait-us-Salaat when Namaz Jumah is not
prayed in A Masjid, but that should not create a dispute in the future between
Momineen in these two places on the matter of Namaz Jumah.
do not do something which can result in dispute among Mo’mineen.
worship unites the believers and does not disunite them.
Is it wajib (obligatory) to raise hand
in the 2nd rak’at for Dua-e-Qunoot?
Raising hands for Qonoot is
recommended (Mustahab) and not obligatory (Wajib (obligatory)). Qonoot itself is Mustahab and not Wajib
(obligatory). Doing any Mustahab act
is a cause of great reward, and leaving it without reason deprives us of that
I am student of Class 8th who usually
does not pray Salat (Namaz). What is
the sin for not praying? Also I want some small Dua to recite so that my heart
should bend towards Salat and my studies too so that I can accomplish and
become what I want to be in my life and also that I should remember whatever I
learn, so that I can be successful in both this life and in the Hereafter.
Salat (Namaz) is the pillar of
religion which means that without Salat there is no religion. No good deed can be accepted without Salat. The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) used to say that Salat distinguishes us (Muslims)
from non-Muslims. So, whosoever
leaves Salat deliberately will be like a non-Muslim.
The punishment of not praying Salat is severe because nobody ignores Salat if
he/she respects Allah (s.w.t.)’s
orders. Disrespecting Allah’s orders
would make the person like one who is outside Islam, and such a person will end
up in the fire of hell even if he or she was a Muslim by name. Quranic verses have emphasized the supreme
importance of Salat and have stated clearly that Muslims who do not offer Salat
will go to Saqar, which a part of the hellfire.
a person wants proximity to the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and the Ahlul-Bayt (a.s.) he/she must pray Salat, and if he/she does not,
he/she shall be gathered with their enemies in the hell fire.
regards the Dua requested by you, it is very good to repeatedly recite “Astaghferullaaha
Rabbi Wa Atoobo Elayhe” and also “Allahumma Salle Alaa Mohammad Wa Aale
Mohammad” and “La Hawla Wa La Quwwata Illaa Billah Al-A’liyy Al-A’zeem” 100
times each daily, at whatever time you can.
This will help you in getting your heart cleansed, and your wishes fulfilled.
Allah (s.w.t.) bless you and help you to overcome your worst
enemy (Shaitan) who wants to destroy you here and in the hereafter, while Allah
(s.w.t.) wants to save you.
So, it is for you to decide whom to follow.
I understand that it is wajib
(obligatory) on the eldest son to perform the Qaza wajib (obligatory) Salaat
(lapsed obligatory prayers) that were not performed by his deceased father
during his lifetime. Can these
prayers be performed by the other sons of the deceased too? Are they allowed to
do so if they so wish?
Though it is obligatory on the
eldest son to perform those Qaza prayers, it will be sufficient if they are
performed by anybody else. Any son
or daughter can also perform the Qaza Salaat on behalf of their deceased father. Alternatively, any other person can perform the Qaza
prayers too, either voluntarily or by taking money from the family of the
deceased. The eldest son or any
other son or daughter or relative or friend can pay money to any person who can
pray the Qaza Salaat on behalf of their deceased father.
Such Salaat will suffice to release the dead person from the responsibility of
his obligatory Qaza Salaat.
We are told that there is no
Namaz-e-Janaaza (funeral prayer) for an unborn child or foetus that dies during
pregnancy, possibly on the grounds that there is no soul.
If this is so, why is there so much hue and cry about abortion? Please explain.
Abortion is always not allowed
(prohibited) except when it is necessary to save the life of the mother. No matter what is the duration of the pregnancy -
even if it is one day or one hour after the formation of the zygote - it is
haraam (unlawful and forbidden) to abort the foetus, simply because it is a
beginning of the creation of a human being and no one has the right to
duration of the pregnancy is considered in calculating the penalty of the crime
of abortion as it goes up with the period till the period is four months when
the penalty is the maximum.
is no link between Salaat al-Janaza (funeral prayer) and abortion. Salaat al-Janaaza is obligatory to be prayed on
every Muslim who understands the meaning of Salaat even if he/she was not
abiding. Children under the age of
six are excluded from Salaat al-Janaaza if they die.
There is no funeral prayer for children under the age of six.
Is it necessary to pray Salat al-Layl
every night, or just a couple of times a week/month?
Salat al-Layl (Night Prayer) is
highly recommended every night. It
is a great, sincere and tasteful relationship between you and Allah (s.w.t.), the Merciful.
Leaving Salat al-Layl at any night with out a serious reason, such as illness
etc, means that the person has committed a sin which had a bad effect on
his/her heart and spirituality, preventing himself/herself from the bounty of
Can we pray in front of a na-mahram?
My friend tells me it’s permissible as we pray in Makkah and Madina. Please clarify.
According to the fatwa (verdict)
of Ayatullah Seestani, it is precautionally not allowed for a woman to pray
side by side a man, even if he was a Mahram.
A woman, according to Ayatullah Seestani, is supposed to pray behind the man. According to the fatwa of Ayatullah Khoei, it is
allowed to pray side by side or even ahead.
Praying in front of na-mahram is allowed as far as woman is wearing her full
Hijaab. As Muslim women pray in
Makkah and Madina and other holy places in the presence of men, it is allowed
elsewhere as far as Hijaab is observed.
Why a person is denied the right to
lead a jama’at (congregational prayers) in case he is born of an illegitimate
union, even though it is his parents who are to be blamed for the sin and not
If an illegitimately born person
was to lead the congregational prayers, the severity of the sin of adultery
would diminish in the eyes of the people and the forbidden act will gain
respectability and acceptability.
Just as women are not permitted to lead a male congregational prayer, it is
merely a condition that illegitimately born persons should not lead
congregational prayers. There is no
question of injustice or insult involved here.
I live in a region that is
earthquake-prone. Although a number
of earthquakes occur each year, in most cases we do not feel them and come to
know of it only in the media the next day.
In this situation is it wajib (obligatory) to recite Namaz-e-Aayat?
Namaz-e-Ayaat is not Wajib
(obligatory) on you if you did not feel the earthquake.
In the event of eclipse, if the eclipse was full, then it will be Wajib
(obligatory) on you even if you were not aware of it when it happened. If the eclipse was not full, then it will be Wajib
(obligatory) only on those who knew about it when it happened.
Can a person say ‘Bismillah’ before
the ‘Tasbeehat-e-Arba’ in the third and the fourth rak’ats (units) of the
It is not wrong to say ‘Bismillah’
before the ‘Tasbeehat-e-Arba’. In
fact it is Mustahab (recommended) to say ‘Bismillah’ before starting anything.
If we say our niyyat (statement of
intention) wrong, e.g. instead of saying ‘Zohr’ if we say ‘Asr ki 4 rak’at’,
and we correct it by saying ‘Zohr’, is our Salaat correct or is it wrong?
The Salaat is correct because
your intention was to pray Zohr. It
is not necessary to say the niyyat.
So long as your intention was to pray Zohr for the sake of Allah it is OK.
How are the imsak, fajr, zohr and
Maghrib times defined?
Imsak is the time when it is
good to stop eating and drinking. It
is a precaution to do so a few minutes before dawn (Fajr).
Fajr is the time when light of day start spreading horizontally in the sky. It is the time of the Morning Prayer. Zohr is the time of mid-day when sun is in the
middle of the sky. Zohr is defined
as the time when the shadow begins to increase after its maximum decrease. Maghrib is the time of the real sunset. It is defined as the time when the reddish light
disappears from the east side of the horizon.
I live in a town where my main base
for work purposes is also located.
On various occasions, I do have to travel to different places for work, which
means 1 sometimes go straight from home, and sometimes go to the local base,
then travel on to another place for work.
I always return home the same day, and always leave home before noon. Can you please advise if my fast is valid for
those days that I travel for my work, bearing in mind my main base is in the
town of my residence?
If your travelling for work is
just sometimes and not regular, you are then a ‘traveller’ and your fasting is
not valid if you start travelling before noon.
But if your work is travelling or in travelling, you must keep fasting during
such frequent travelling.
A Muslim becomes a Shia after having
been in another sect. He owes some
prayer [salaat] and fasts due to his not having observed them at the time these
were due. Is it wajib (obligatory)
on him to observe those lapsed prayers and fasts?
A Shia Muslim was not conscious of the
importance of prayers and fasting.
Is it obligatory (wajib (obligatory)) on him to observe those prayers and
fasting once he becomes conscious about it?
Please explain on what did our Holy
Prophet Mohammed (s.a.w.a.) perform sajdah (prostration) when there was no
paper or earth available. Also, when
we are in a Masjid where the floor is covered with carpets and no paper
available what should we use to perform sajdah? We shall appreciate your reply
in the context that the sajdagah (mohr) or khake-shefa was only introduced
after the event of Karbala.
A. 1. The Prophetic ahadees mention that sujood
(prostrations) must be on earth or anything from the earth except metals,
edibles and things that can be worn.
Paper is mentioned in the ahadees as an item for sujood.
If any of the
above is not available, then sujood can be done on a part of your own cloth. If this is also not possible, then on the back of
your hand which is the last stage of necessity.
In usual cases doing sujood on the back of the hand is not allowed.
2. In the Masjids of the Ahl-Sunnat
(recommended) where there are only carpets, you can perform sujood on a small
piece of paper. If this is
difficult, then you can adopt taqiyyah by doing sajdah on the carpet to avoid
3. Sajdagah (Mohr) or (Torbah) was not
introduced after Karbala,
but from the time of the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.).
Sayyedah Fatema (s.a.) made a sajdagah or a mohr from the soil of the
grave of her uncle Hamza to perform sajdah on.
Many of the Companions used to use sajdagah from soil or a small piece of mat. This is mentioned in famous Sunni books like
Tareekh Ahmadi. It was known by the
name of Khumrah.
4. Doing sajdah on carpet or on textile
willingly is haraam and Bid’at. The
Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) never did sajdah on any carpet or textile. He used to say: ‘Earth was made (by Allah) for me
as a place for sujood and a source of cleanliness (Tahoora) (like Tayammum).
Q154. How does one offer Namaz-e-Shab (night
A. Namaz-e-Shab is offered after
midnight and it is recommended to pray nearer to and before the time of morning
prayers. It consists of 11 rak’ats. Firstly, two rak’ats Namaz like the Morning Prayer
is offered four times. This 8 rak’at
constitutes the first part of Namaz-e-Shab.
In each of this rak’at, you may read Surah Al-Hamd alone or with any complete Surah
of your preference. Then another
two-rak’at Namaz called Namaz-e-Shaf’a should be offered.
Preferably, in the first rak’at of it, after Surah Al-Hamd recite Surah Qul A’oozo
Berabbil Falaq. In the second rak’at,
after Surah Al-Hamd, recite Surah Qul A’oozo Berabbil Naas. When you complete it, get up and offer 1 rak’at
Namaz known as Namaz-e-Watr in which after reciting Surah Al-Hamd, recite Surah
Tawheed three times followed by Surah Falaq and Surah Naas. Before going into Ruku, raise your hands and say “Al-Afw”
300 times followed by “Allahum-Maghfir – (so and so Mu’mineen, whether living
or dead)” forty times. It is
recommended to say “Astaghferullaaha wa Atubo elayhe” seventy times. Then in between Salawats, mention your wish. The reward of Namaz-e-Shab is so great and vast
that Allah alone knows it.
Is it enough to remain silent in the
congregation (Jama’at) offering Namaz-e-Mayyat?
It is not enough. It is Wajib
(obligatory) for everyone to read it.
The shortest form of Namaz-e-Mayyat is to have intention then say the first
takbeer (Allaho-Akbar) recite it with raised hands: “Ashhado an laa elaaha
illallaaho wahdahu laa Sharika lahu wa ashhado anna Mohammadan Abdohu wa
Rasoolohu” - then after second Takbeer (Allaho Akbar), recite: “Allahumma Salle
alaa Mohammadin wa Aale Mohammad” - say third Takbeer and recite: “Allahummaghfir
lil Mo’meneen wal Mo’menaat” - after fourth takbeer, recite: “Allahummaghfir Le
haazal / haazehi (male/female) Mayyat (mention the name of the dead Mu’min) and
the Namaz is concluded by the fifth Takbeer.
What is Namaz-e-Istisqa? How do we
Namaz-e-Istisqa is Mustahab
(recommended). Namaz to be prayed
when we need rain, i.e. when rain is required.
Istisqa means the request of water and rain.
Namaz-e-Istisqa is a two Rakat Namaz.
But Namaz-e-Istisqa has got an exception that we can pray it in a gathering i.e.
Jamaat Namaz. Generally all Mustahab
Namaz has to be prayed individually but Namaz-e-Istisqa can be prayed with
After killing a Lizard is it
compulsory to perform Ghusl (bath) for the Namaz-e-Istisqa?
It is not Wajib (obligatory), but it is Mustahab (recommended) to perform Ghusl
(bath) after killing a lizard. It is
not Wajib (obligatory) at-all-also for Namaz-e-Istisqa or any other reason it
is not Wajib (obligatory) to have Ghusl (bath).
Is it required to offer Qaza Namaz for
unusual events like (eclipse, earthquake) which may have been missed by the
woman due to Haiz (periods)?
No it is not required.
Can one pray the Namaz-e-Mayyat for a
person who offered only Eid-Namaz?
Namaz-e-Mayyat can be and should
be offered for people, even if they are sinners.
Except for those who are enemies of Allah, His Prophet (s.a.w.a.) & the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.). If
you know of persons who deliberately do no offer daily Namaz and come only for
Eid Namaz, you should advise them.
If they persist, they should be avoided and left on their own.
Can Qaza Namaz of a dead person be
performed by someone who offers it in a sitting position?
No, it cannot be done.
Who should be obliged to offer the
Qaza Namaz of a dead person, in case of the eldest child being a daughter?
The Qaza Namaz of the deceased
father is incumbent on the eldest male child, even though, he may have elder
sisters. Although, it is permissible
for a lady to perform the Qaza Namaz for a dead man, just as it is permissible
for a gentlemen to perform the Qaza Namaz of a dead woman.
What is Namaz-e-Ziarat?
It is like any other Namaz, but
we in this case gift the reward of it to the Imaams (a.s.).
My parents hail from Lucknow.
But I do not have a business or house over there.
Will I have to offer complete or Qasr (halved) prayers upon visiting it?
If your intention is to settle
there afterwards, it will be considered your native place and you will offer
complete prayers even if your visit is for 1 day.
In case, you don’t intend to settle there, even though people may call you a ‘Lucknowi’,
you will offer your 4 rak’at Namaz as Qasr unless you’ve decided to stay for at
least 10 days.
Can one offer the Nawafil
(Supererogatory Namaz) of Namaz-e-Zohr any time after sunrise?
Nawafil Namaze Zohr cannot be
offered in the morning. It can be
offered with the intention of qaza (lapsed) Namaz.
The time for Nawafil of Namaze Zohr is from the onset of noontime.
A person offers Isha prayers and then
realizes that he had not offered his Maghrib prayers.
What should he do?
If the person realizes that he
has not offered Namaz-e-Maghrib after completing Namaz-e-Isha, and the time of
the prayers have not lapsed for the day, the person should offer both the Namaz
in its proper sequence. But if he
recalls that he has not offered Namaz-e-Maghrib in the course of Namaz-e-Isha,
before going into Ruku of the fourth Rak’at, he should change his intention to
Namaz-e-Maghrib sit down; recite tashahhud, Salam and two Sajdah-e-Sahw. And in case, the person recalls after going into
Ruku of the fourth Rak’at, he will offer Namaz-e-Maghrib & Namaz-e-Isha
Does the number of rak’ats of mustahab
Namaz change when it is offered in a sitting or standing position?
Mustahab Namaz is basically of
two rak’ats. A person offers two rak’ats
mustahab Namaz while sitting or standing, in exactly the same manner or he may
double the number of rak’ats in the sitting position.
Although it is not wajib (obligatory) to increase the number of rak’ats in the
Q167. Can one pray for a non-Muslim who loves
Imam Husain (a.s.) and mourns for him?
The name of the person does not
matter. As long as he keeps away
from shirk (polytheism) and Kufr (infidelity) and believes in Islam’s truth and
beliefs, one can pray for him, otherwise one cannot pray for a non-believer. Many converts are told that they can pray for
guidance for a non-Muslim.
Can a person in the middle of the
Mustahab Namaz move away from the Qibla and continue it while going out of the
It is permissible to do that
because facing the Qibla is not a condition necessary for Mustahab Namaz.
Should the onset of night prayer’s
time (Namaz-e-Shab) be calculated as the middle of sunset and dawn or the
middle of sunset and sunrise?
A. The onset of Namaz-e-Shab’s time is
between sunset and sunrise.
Why is it that offering prayers for
the dead in mosques is considered undesirable but it is not so in Masjidul
Haram (Makkah) and Masjid-e-Nabawi (Medina)?
During Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
Ahlul Bayt (a.s.)’s time, people used to offer Namaz-e-Mayyat in
Masjidul Haram and Masjid-e-Nabawi.
So it is a clear precedent for Muslims to follow while the undesirability of
doing the same in other mosques also remains.
Can a person achieve the status of a “Shia”
without offering night prayers?
There are various stages of
faith for a true believer. One who
believes in all the fundamentals of Islam, including the belief in Twelve Imams
of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) is a Shia.
One who performs all obligatory acts and abstains from sins is a better Shia. And one who offers all recommended acts and helps
others and acts according to the ways of the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) in
all aspects will be a complete Shia.
Is it obligatory for women to offer
Namaz-e-Aayaat (Signs Prayers) for thundering of the clouds?
Namaz-e-Aayaat is obligatory for
men as well as women, except when a woman is in menses (Hayz) or lochia (Nifas). In which case, it is not obligatory for her to
offer it or its ‘qaza’ (lapsed prayers).
Can one offer ‘qaza’ (lapsed) prayers
in a congregational prayer?
Lapsed prayers can be offered in congregation whether the Namaz of the Imam be
that of ‘Adaa’ (the prayer in time) or lapsed.
And it is not necessary that both of them should offer the same prayers. For example, there is no harm if a person offers
lapsed dawn prayers with the afternoon prayers of the Imam.
When a recommended prayer becomes
obligatory on account of a ‘Nazr’ (vow) do rules applicable to recommended
prayers apply to it, too?
Yes, for example, a recommended
prayer which has become obligatory on account of a vow can be performed while
travelling in a vehicle or walking just like other recommended prayers. However, as regards some recommended prayers like
Namaz-e-Wahshat in which a particular Surah is to be recited, if a person
wished to act according to the orders prescribed for that prayer he should
recite the same Surah, while it is not necessary to recite the second Surah in
Does increasing the ‘Rukn’ (basic
elements) invalidate ‘Naafela’ (recommended) prayers?
Recommended prayers are not
invalidated by increasing the basic elements but it is invalidated by
decreasing a basic element. For
example if a person recollects during prostrations that he has not performed
bowing he should stand up, perform bowing and then do prostration again.
Is it necessary to maintain the order
of prayers while performing the ‘qaza’ (lapsed) prayers of a dead person?
Maintenance of order is not
obligatory in the lapsed prayers of a dead person except in the case of ‘Ada’
(regular) prayers in which the order is to be maintained, for e.g. the ‘Asr’
(afternoon) prayers of one day should be offered after ‘Zohar’ (midday) prayers
and likewise with other prayers.
Can one offer Namaz-e-Mayyat along
with non-Shia Imams? What was the practice during the period preceding Maula
Namaz-e-Mayyat is actually a
supplication which can be offered along with non-Shia Imams. It was prevalent as such during the period preceding
Maula Ali (a.s.).
If anyone commits for a mannat that he
would perform Namaz on the fulfilment of his wish then can he perform the Namaz
before the fulfilment of his mannat?
If the mannat is for the
obligatory (wajib) Namaz then commitment of a mannat is not necessary and it is
to be performed in all conditions.
If the mannat is for a Mustahab (desirable) Namaz then it is not obligatory to
perform it before the fulfilment of the mannat.
What are we supposed to do if we have
so many qaza (lapsed) prayers, stretching back over many years, that we can’t
count them any more and it would take a long time to make them all up?
Recite as much Qada prayers as
you can until you acquire satisfaction that you owe no more.
My question is in regard to “mannat”. Is it true that we cannot do mannat of Namaz or
fasting, if we have any that are qaza? If this is true, I know that as far as
Namaz is concerned, we must complete our qaza Namaz ourselves. However, is this also true when it comes to roza
(fasting) or is there any other way to make up the owed roza? For example, can
we send money?
The word you are looking for is ‘Nazr’
- a vow to recite Namaz or fast upon successful completion of something. This can be done even if we have Qaza (outstanding). Qaza fasts or Namaz cannot be delegated to someone
else during ones lifetime. But it
should be one’s sincere endeavours to complete all one’s Qaza Namaz and fasts
during ones lifetime itself. These
can, however, be delegated after death by either leaving a will to that effect
or to the eldest son (or any child for that matter) gets the qaza fulfilled by
paying people to do it.
What is the position with a Muslim
committing suicide, particularly in respect of Namaz-e-Janaza; burial rites; praying
for the Muslim who committed suicide?
All rituals from Ghusl (bath) to
Dafan (burial) and Namaz-e-Janaza in respect of a Muslim who died by suicide is
wajib (obligatory) and compulsory.
There is no harm in praying for his/her soul.
A lady wishes to know that while
performing Namaz, is it permissible to prostrate immediately after Ruku’
without standing up?
If one deliberately goes into
Sajdah after Ruku’ without standing up, the Namaz will be void. If it is done unintentionally, it will not affect
A person offering Namaz after rising
from a Sajdah (i.e. prostration) doubts whether it is his first or
second Sajdah. What should he do?
The person should do Sajdah
again and after Namaz, have two Sajdah-e-Sahw (Sajdah for mistakes).
Does one have to say Taqbeer first in
Namaz-e-Ehtiyaat starts with Takbeer, Surah Al Hamd, and then Ruku’, then two
Sajdahs then Tashahhud and salaam.
The Namaz-e-Ehtiyaat has to be recited silently i.e. your voice should not be audible to some one
For Namaze-Ehtiyaat and Sajdah-e-Sahv,
is it necessary to say Takbeer before starting the Namaz or Sajdatain? And in
between the two Sajdah’s can one recite Astagferullah? Also the Salaam? All
three Salaams can be recited? Which is the one Salaam that is Wajib
Yes for Namaz-e-Ehtiyaat “Taqbeeratul-Ehraam”
is Wajib (obligatory). But for Sajdah-e
Sahv no Takbeer is wajib (obligatory), we immediately go for Sajdah. Yes we can recite Astagferullah in between two
Sajdahs. Yes Salaam can be recited
but not three Salaams only one Salaam the last one after Tashhahud.
What should be done in case of doubt,
such that one doesn’t know whether the time of Namaz has lapsed (become Qaza)
You should consider it to be its
proper time and offer your Namaz with the intention of the regular Namaz. A Namaz will be considered Qaza only when one is
certain about it.
Generally all Zakirs say that Salawat
should be recited loudly. People in
congregation have been known to scream at the top of their voices when reciting
Salawat. Somehow it sounds like a
slogan rather than a prayer for Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) and Ahlul Bayt (a.s.).
Please give the correct view.
Salawat should be recited loudly
and there are many a traditions, which say that it drives away “Nifaaq”. Salawat is a prayer/dua and one should, realizing
this, keep up the decorum of a prayer.
Is there any necessity of reciting
Fateha (Surah Al-Hamd) before distributing any Niyaz?
It is not obligatory to recite
Surah Al-Hamd before distributing any Niyaz.
It carries reward but there is no harm if not recited.
What are the merits of reciting
salutations to Imam Husain (a.s.) on the day of Aashura (i.e. 10th of Muharram)?
It has been reliably narrated by
Shaikh Tusi (r.a.) in his Misbah that Imam Mohammad Baqir (a.s.)
said: “One who recites salutations from far or near to Imam Husain (a.s.) on
the 10th of Muharram or weeps near his grave will meet Allah on the day of
judgement with rewards of 2000 mustahab Hajj and 2000 Umrah and 2000 Jihad such
that they have been performed in the company of the Messenger of Allah (s.a.w.a.). One should know that angels and Prophets recite
Ziyarat-e-Aashura. Those who mourn
with sincerity and deep understanding can derive benefits and rewards which are
Does it make any difference if the
number of time one is required to recite a particular supplication is
If it has been mentioned in a
narration of Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) or his Ahlul Bayt (a.s.), then the exact number of times should be
complied with. For example,
Namaz-e-Shab comprises of 11 rakats and if you wish to offer more, then it should
be performed with other intentions.
What is the significance of
Hazrat Ali (a.s.)
taught this Dua’ to his very close companion, Kumail Ibne Ziyaad. Allamah Majlisi says that this Dua’ reached Amirul
Mo’menin through Prophet Khizr (a.s.).
should be recited during the nights of the middle of Shabaan and every Friday
night (night between Thursday & Friday).
If not possible recite once a month on any Friday night, or once in a lifetime.
seek fulfilment of legitimate desires recite it after obligatory prayers till
your desires are fulfilled. It keeps
you safe from the intrigues of enemies, multiplies means of livelihood and sins
May I know the Dua and manner of
slaughtering the following animals: Chicken; goat; cow; camel; wild animals; an
animal for Aquiqua; an animal for slaying Festival, i.e. Idd ul-hajj?
Chicken, cow, goat and animals
like these are slaughtered by knife.
Camel is first pierced in the neck by spear, and then slaughtered by knife.
all slaughtering, except Aquiqua and Sacrifice of Idd ul-Hajj the only dua
which is wajib (obligatory) is ‘Bismillah’.
Aquiqua and sacrifice, as mentioned above, it is necessary to have the ‘niyyat’
(intention) that you are slaughtering the animal for that particular purpose
Qurbatan Elallaah (i.e., in obedience to the command of Allah).
necessary conditions for the slaughter of any animal are as follows:
1. The person who slaughters must be a
2. The knife must be of iron or steel.
At the time of slaughtering,
the face, hands, feet and stomach of the animal must be towards Qibla. Also, the person slaughtering that animal must be
facing towards Qibla.
Before, beginning the
slaughter, when the knife is put on the animal’s throat, the person must say ‘Bismillaah’
with intention of slaughtering it.
The animal should move its body
or limbs after slaughter before dying.
Also it is necessary that as much blood should come out of its body as normally
comes out from such animals.
Before slaying the animal for Aquiqa, this Dua is Sunnat (recommended):
wa billaahe Allaahumma haazehi aqeeqatun an (name of the child and his father) lahmohaa
be lahmehi wa damohaa be damehi wa azmohaa be azmehi wa sha’rohaa be sha’rehi wa
jildohaa be jildehi Allaahummaja’lhaa waqaan le (name of the child and his
the child is a daughter, then after taking her name first time, the remaining
Dua’s will be recited as follows:
be lahmehi wa damohaa be damehi wa azmohaa be azmehi wa sha’rohaa be sha’rehi
wa jildohaa be jildehi Allaahummaja’lhaa waqaan le (name of the child and her
qawme innee bariun mimmaa tushrekoona innee wajjahto wajheya lillazee fataras
samaawaate wal arza hanifam muslemawn wa maa anaa menal mushrekeena inna
salaati wa nosoki wa mahyaaya wa mamaati lillaahe rabbil a’alameena laa
shareeka lahu wa le zaaleka omirto wa anaa menal muslemeena Allaahumma minka wa
laka bismillaahe wallaaho akbaro.
salle alaa Mohammadin wa Aale Mohammad wa Taqabbal min (name of child and his /
at Eid ul-Hajj time: Before slaughtering the animal, this Dua is sunnat
wajheya lillazi fataras samaawaate wal arza hanifam muslemawn wa maa anaa menal
mushrekin inna salaati wa nosoki wa mahyaaya wa mamaati lillaahe Rabbil Aalameena
la sharika lahu wa be zaaleka omirot wa anaa menal muslemeena Allahumma minka
wa laka Bismillaahe wal laaho Akbaro.
wild animals: If a wild animal, whose meat is Halal, is killed by hunting, it
will be Halal on the following conditions:
1. The weapon must be sharp (like spear
or arrow) which pierces the body by its sharp edge.
Also, the bullets of a gun are allowed.
But small gun like air-gun is not allowed.
2. The person who uses that weapon must
use it with the intention of killing the animal.
If, for example, an animal is killed by his bullet accidentally, its meat will
not be Halal.
3. The said person must be a Muslim.
At the time of using that
weapon, he/she must say ‘Bismillah’.
The animal, at the time of
arrival of the hunter, must be dead because of the wound inflicted by that
weapon (or so near to death that slaying it in a normal way is not possible). If at the arrival of the hunter it is alive, and
there is enough time to slay it in a normal way, it must be slaughtered
accordingly; otherwise, its meat will be Haram.
It is said before reciting the ‘Nade-Ali’
dua; one should recite ‘Darood Sharif’.
What is Darood Shariff?
Darood Shareef is ‘allaahumma
salle ala Mohammad wa aale Mohammad’.
It is the greatest Dua’a that we can pray, and the reward of it is greater than
what we can imagine. It is
recommended to recite it a 100 times a day.
This will be a cause of receiving the best in this life and in the hereafter.
I want to know the du’a to be recited
in a market.
This Du’a is narrated from the
Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) to be read in the market:
wal hamdolillaahe wa laa elaaha illallaaho wahdahu la shareeka lahu lahul mulko
wa lahul hamdo yohyee wa yomeeto wa howa hayyun laa yamooto be yadehil khair wa
howa ‘ala kulle shayin qadeer.”
is recommended to repeat the name of Allah (s.w.t.) while
one is in the market, as saying ‘Subhaanallaah, Alhamdolillaah, Laa elaaha Illallaaho,
Is there any Du’a, which can be
recited to condemn/punish an oppressor immediately?
It is very good to seek refuge
of Allah (s.w.t.) from oppression and injustice of people by
reciting any Du’a or repeating ‘Ya Azeezu Ya Muntaqim’ 100 times. It is also useful to recite Surah Al-Nasr in
Salaat for victory over enemies.
Repeating ‘La Hawla Wala Qowwata Illa Billaah’ is also very useful.
Q196. How powerful is dua? Can one change one’s
life and one’s destiny even if Allah [s.w.t.] has
already - when one was in the womb? - decided the length of one’s life? Can dua
lengthen one’s life, save one from getting into a fatal accident or in daily
life help one to lose weight?
A. Yes, Du’a can change one’s life and
prolong it and help fulfill one’s wishes.
Du’a is a golden key given by Allah (s.w.t.) to
the people to seek their wishes. By Du’a,
great harm and calamities can be avoided, and longer life can be achieved as
well as many other wishes. All the
prophets used to use Du’a as a weapon and the hadees (tradition) says “Du’a is
the weapon of the believer”.
Does Wuzu become void when a person
eats food or washes his hands with soap?
It does not have any effect on the Wuzu of the person.
Would Wuzu of a lady be valid where
here nails are covered by nail-polish?
Her Wuzu ghusl (bath) and
tayammum are all void because nail-polish forms a layer which prevents water
from reaching the nails. Henna or
mehndi does no affect in the same way since it leaves behind only the colour. Women are permitted to use the nail-polish but
before undertaking Wuzu, ghusl (bath) or tayammum she will have to remove it.
Can a person’s Wuzu be valid if
Najasat exists on his body, other than the places of Wuzu.
And can he thereafter cleanse himself with the same Wuzu for prayers?
While performing Wuzu if the parts which are not to be used in Wuzu or to be “masaa”,
in Wuzu, i.e.
in other parts if there is Najasaat the Wuzu is valid.
In Wuzu only parts which are involved in Wuzu should be “paak” before using it
or reaching to it. Also other parts
which are not Wuzu parts, if he makes it paak then his Namaz Wuzu is valid and
he can pray with the same Wuzu.
Can we apply chemical, synthetic or
herbal dyes in the hair of head or beard? Will Wuzu or Ghusl (bath) e all right
if the dye is applied?
Yes we can use it, as it is just
a Dye and is not a layer, like Henna it is jaiz (permissible). If the dye is not “paak” we have to wash it before
doing Wuzu or Ghusl (bath). But
usually it is jaiz (permissible), and having dye on body does not make any
difference on Ghusl (bath) or Wuzu.
Can a person wipe his head or feet
more than once during Wuzu?
It cannot be done except, when
his hand is dry and the person takes wetness from his face for wiping the feet.
How should one perform tayammum?
The person performing tayammum
should firstly remove the rings from his or her hands.
Then place both the palms firmly on the clean dust, natural stone or wood. With both palms joined side by side, one must wipe
the forehead starting from the line above which is covered with hair down to
the upper part of the nose and covering both sides of the forehead breadth wise. Next wipe the back of the right hand from the
wrist to the finger-tips with the left palm and then wipe the back of the left
hand with the right palm. Now, place
both palms for the second time firmly on the same substance and wipe the back
of both hands in the way described above.
What is the difference between the
tayammum performed in place of ghusl (bath) or Wuzu?
The person performing tayammum
in place of ghusl (bath) is required to place both of his or her palms on the
ground twice but it is sufficient to place the palms on the ground once while
substituting tayammum for Wuzu.
Is it necessary to include the big toe
of the feet while wiping it during the Wuzu?
It is not necessary to wipe the
big toe of the feet during Wuzu. Any
part of the upper portion of the feet will suffice.
It is sufficient to wipe with the whole hand or just a finger.
Is it wrong to lift one’s feet for
wiping it during the Wuzu?
It is not wrong provided there
is no movement of the foot while wiping.
That is why, it is better to rest the foot on the ground before wiping it.
What kind of help offered to
facilitate Wuzu is not permissible?
Bringing water for another
person wishing to do Wuzu is correct & pouring water for him would be
considered as “Makruh” (undesirable).
But what is not permissible is literally doing Wuzu of another person with one’s
Will Wuzu be affected if the person,
after washing his right hand, drinks water?
It will not make the Wuzu void. Care should be taken to see that a big gap does
not break the continuity of the Wuzu acts.
How should one perform Wuzu when the
head is bandaged?
If it is possible to remove the
bandage which covers the area to be wiped it should be removed before doing the
Wuzu. But if it is not possible to
remove the bandage, one cannot wipe on it during the Wuzu.
The person should perform tayammum in that case.
A person has just washed his face and
hands. Now he wishes to do Wuzu. Can he wipe his wet hands over his face and hands
without taking any water with the intention of Wuzu?
It would be correct to wipe
hands over the wet face and hands if the area required for Wuzu is made wet,
with the intention of Wuzu. The
person can complete the Wuzu without taking any water.
After doing ghusl (bath) with the
intention of reciting Ziyarate Imam Husain (a.s.) can a person offer Namaz before reciting the
According to the latest fatwa of
Ayatullah Khoei (which was received before Saddam commenced his atrocities)
only for those who are in Karbala,
the recommended ghusl (bath) for Ziyarat of Imam Husain (a.s.) can
suffice for Namaz. But those who are
away from Karbala
should necessarily also do Wuzu.
Can a person wipe his head and feet
during Wuzu in downward as well as upward direction?
In wiping the head, it should be
only from the top in the downward direction.
But for wiping the feet, it can be done in either direction.
Q212. What should be done regarding Wuzu
(ablutions) or ghusl (bath) (ceremonial bath) when there is blood under the
If the blood under the nail has
dried-up-such that it cannot be called blood, it is pure.
But if it is called blood and it is difficult to purify that spot, for the
purpose of ablutions and ceremonial bath, tayammum should be performed.
It is necessary to take bath (Ghusl
(bath)) separately for the number of corpses one has touched?
It is sufficient to take bath
(Ghusl (bath)) once even if one touches several corpses or touches the same
corpse a number of times.
What should a person do, who, in the
course of his prayers, doubts whether or not he has performed Wuzu (ablution)?
His prayer is void and he should
perform ablutions and then offer prayers.
What if the person doubts whether or
not he performed ablutions after finishing his prayers?
If there is a probability of his
having been mindful of this condition when he commenced his prayers the prayers
offered by him would be in order.
But as regards future prayers he should perform ablutions for them.
What should a person do in case he has
only so much time that he may take bath and offer prayers without its
recommended acts or he may perform tayammum and offer prayers along with its
He should take bath and offer
the prayers without its recommended acts, even if he does not have time to
recite the Surah (second Surah after Surah al-Hamd).
Sometimes after urinating, a white
sticky fluid is discharged. Do I
have to perform ‘ghusl (bath)’ (ceremonial bath) for performing prayers after
The fluid which is discharged
after urinating, whether before or after istebra is not ‘mani’ (semen) and is
know as ‘wadi’ (white liquid), there is no need to perform a bath, because of
that Wuzu ablution performed after urinating and before offering prayers would
Do things which nullify Wuzu
(ablutions) also nullify the tayammum?
Can one offer Namaz (prayers) with the
Wuzu (ablutions) performed with the intention of reading the holy Qur’an?
Wuzu performed for reading the
holy Qur’an or for that matter, with the intention of seeking divine pleasure,
suffices for the performance of other acts also.
Is it necessary to be with Wuzu for
doing obligatory prostrations of Sajdatus Sahw or of the Holy Qur’an?
It is not obligatory to be with
Wuzu for Sajdatus Sahw or doing obligatory prostrations of the Holy Qur’an.
What should a person do who doubts
whether or not he has performed his tayammum correctly?
If the person doubts before he
has passed that stage, he should perform tayammum of that part. But if the person doubts after wiping the left
hand when it is probable that he was mindful, his tayammum is valid and he
should not pay attention to his doubt.
Can a person perform tayammum before
the time of prayers sets in?
The person cannot perform tayammum unless the time for prayers sets in. But if he has performed tayammum for some obligatory
or recommended act and his excuse (on account of which his religious obligation
is tayammum) continues till the time for prayers sets in, he can offer his
prayers with that tayammum. However,
if he knows that his excuse will cease to exist by the end of the time of
prayers, he should wait and offer prayers with ablutions or bath, as the case
Can one perform Wuzu in the state of
If it is not possible to do
ghusl (bath) immediately, one performs Wuzu for earning Allah’s pleasure. Basically this Wuzu is done for eating, drinking
or sleeping purpose and Namaz cannot be performed with this Wuzu.
A person finds that not enough time is
available for performing Ghusl-e-Janabat and the dawn is about to break. Can the person perform Tayammum? Can the person
say the morning prayers with that Tayammum?
If dawn is close, the junub must
perform Tayammum, have the intention and also manage for the Qaza of the fast,
according to Ehtiyat. The person
must then perform Ghusl-e-Janabat immediately for the Namaz. If a person ignores Tayammum, he has to manage the
Qaza as well as the kaffara (i.e. expiation) for that day’s fast.
When performing Wuzu if whilst washing
one’s face using the bath-tap, the water from the tap bounces out of the bath
onto one’s body/skin does it nullify the Wuzu as a bath is unclean by its
nature? Does the position change if Wuzu has already been performed and the
water drops splash onto oneself?
Such water is not Najis as it is
from the tap, even if it bounces out because it is flowing water (jaari). Such flowing water makes the parts that it touches
from the bath clean (taahir), so it does not nullify Wuzu at all. Such water is taahir and does not affect the Wuzu
at any stage.
Is it permissible to avoid taking an
obligatory bath mainly because of the coldness of water?
The obligatory bath cannot be
avoided due to the coldness of water.
Tayammum can only be resorted to in sickness which will be aggravated by the
bath, or lack of sufficient time to take bath and offer the prayers on time, or
because of lack of water or when only ‘najis’ (unclean) water is available.
If a Muslim who is fasting on the 30th
of Ramzan comes to know that today is Eid after Zohr, what should he do?
As soon as he comes to know
about Eid whether before Zohr or even before Maghrib, he should immediately
break his fast. The time of
Namaz-e-Eid is from sunrise up to noon-time.
Eid Namaz cannot be prayed after Zohr.
If he comes to know after Zohr, there is no Namaz-e-Eid for him. Moreover it is not Wajib (obligatory) in the
Ghaybat of Imam-e-Zaman (a.t.f.s.).
Performing Namaz-e-Eid on the next day is haraam.
It is like praying Namaz-e-Jumah on Saturday.
Some people say that one should not
keep a fast on the day of Aashura while others say that it is the Sunnat
(recommended) (tradition) of the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) what is the true Islamic view?
It is ‘Makruh’ (undesirable) to
keep a fast on the day of Aashura.
It is the legacy of the Bani Umayyad rulers who fabricated many traditions
proclaiming the day of Aashura as a very auspicious day.
The Holy Imams (a.s.) have repudiated this view as inauthentic and
Q229. Will it be necessary to give Kaffara
(expiation) for breaking a Mustahab (desirable) fast?
A person is not liable to give any Kaffara for breaking a Mustahab fast,
intentionally or unintentionally.
Kaffara is due on month of Ramazan’s fast and the Qaza of it when broken after
Can one swim during the fasting of
month of Ramazan wearing a plastic cap?
Fasting will not be invalidated.
Would seminal discharge in sleep (Ehtelam)
render a Wajib (obligatory) and Mustahab fast void?
Ramazan fast does not become
void due to Ehtelam. Only Qaza &
Mustahab fast becomes void. If
seminal discharge occurs in a dream during the day in the month of Ramazan, it
is not necessary for him to rush for the Ghusl (bath); he is allowed to
urinate, even though semen left in the urinary tract may come out. If he performs ghusl (bath) before urinating, it
is Ehtiyat for him not to urinate until after Maghrib.
Can a Muslim forgo fasting in the
month of Ramazan if the nature of work entails hardship?
The Muslim who cannot work if he
observes fasting should abstain from working.
He may take a loan, if need arises, but he is not permitted to forego fasting
in the month of Ramazan.
I cannot concentrate in my studies if
I were to fast in the month of Ramazan.
My final exams are near. Can I keep
Qaza for the Ramazan fasts later on?
The fasts of the month of
Ramazan are wajib (obligatory) and the reason you have mentioned cannot justify
your not fasting. Your fears are
baseless. If you obey Allah Ta’ala,
He will help you in your studies.
Can Mo’min break his Mustahab
(recommended) fast by accepting ‘Paak’ (clean) eatables offered by a
No, he cannot break his fast. One can break a Mustahab fast only by accepting
the invitation from another Mo’min.
Can a person returning from a journey
observe wajib (obligatory) fast?
If he returns before noon, his
fasting will be valid.
Is a recommended fast invalidated due
to unintentional intake of food or water?
A recommended fast and even
obligatory ones are not invalidated by unintentional eating or drinking water. When the person remembers, he should spit out that
which is in his mouth. If after
remembering, he were to eat too little and throw the rest out, his fasting will
A person having vowed to do fast on
three consecutive days is unable to fast on the third day.
Will he have to fast for three days once again?
If continuity was not a
condition and the person had merely vowed to fast for three days, he should
observe fast for one more day. But
if continuity was part of the “Nazr”, he should fast for three consecutive days
Can a person fasting for
Kaffara-e-Yameen break his fast after noon-time?
The person fasting for
Kaffara-e-Yameen can break his fast before noon but he cannot break his fast
What should a person do who had
deliberately not kept fast for 3 months of Ramazan?
The person will have to give
Kaffara (expiation) for every day of the month of Ramazan fasting which he has
deliberately not observed. The
expiation for one day is either to set free a slave, feed sixty poor people or
fast for 60 days, of which 31 days must be fasted consecutively. The person will also have to keep one day’s fast
as Qaza for each day of the Ramazan fast.
a precaution, the Qaza of the fasting of Ramazan should not be delayed upto the
next Ramazan. If one has to fast the
Qaza for two or more complete Ramazan, a fidyah (ransom) will be incumbent on
him for each day of the Ramazan month of the year or years before the last
Ramazan. The fidyah is three
quarters of a kilogram of food or a kilogram & a half for each day.
Is it Wajib (obligatory) for a person,
to pay for the Kaffara of the fasting before embarking for the Hajj?
If the person has sincere
intentions of keeping fasts as Kaffara for the Ramazan & other fasting, he
can proceed for Hajj. But if he has
intention of feeding the poor as Kaffara, it will be Wajib (obligatory) for him
to fulfill the Kaffara first, which is similar to a debt on the person, before
embarking for the Hajj.
Can one break fast which has been kept
due to fulfilment of a vow?
The fast due for a fulfilment of
a vow are of two types: (1) Which has no time limit which can be suspended
before noon time, and (2) One which is specifically time bound say for example,
the vow to keep a fast on 15th Shaaban, such a fast cannot be suspended,
neither before nor after noon time.
Would fasting of a person be valid if
in the month of Ramazan he leaves his home town after dawn and returns before
A traveller decides to stay at a place
for 10 days during Ramazan but after a few days fasting, he leaves that place
for another village. Would he be
obliged to keep Qaza of the few days’ fasting later?
No, his early fast is valid.
Can a person, who has touched a dead
body, observe fast without taking the obligatory bath?
Yes, the person can observe fast
without taking the bath for touching a dead body and his fast does not become
void even if he touches the dead body in the state of fast.
Should a wife pay atonement if her
husband forces her to have sexual intercourse while she is observing an
It is the obligation of the
husband, who forces his wife to have sexual intercourse while she I observing
an obligatory fast, to make atonement for his own fast as well as for his wife’s. If the wife was agreeable to the sexual
intercourse one atonement becomes obligatory for each of them.
Can a person observe fasting without
taking a bath for touching a dead body?
A person can observe fasting without taking a bath for touching a dead body and
even if he touches a dead body in the state of fasting, his fast does not
Does the food which remains between
the teeth and is swallowed during the day invalidate the fast?
If the person knows that some
particles of food remains in between his teeth which will go down into his
stomach during the day, it is necessary for him to use a toothpick or dental
floss. In case he does not use a
toothpick or dental floss and something goes down into his stomach, his fast
Does a recommended fast become void if
a person vomits involuntarily?
If a person vomits by mistake or
involuntarily, his fast does not become void.
The rule applies equally to obligatory as well as to recommended fasts.
What is the position of the fast of a
person who breaks it upon the saying of an unreliable person that the sun has
set and learns later that the sun had not set?
If a person, who is not reliable
says that the sun has set, and a person who is observing fast, breaks his fast
on the basis of the statement of the former and learns later that the sun had
not set or doubts whether or not the sun has set, it becomes obligatory on him
to observe qaza of the fast and also to make atonement for it.
Can a person observe fast while
journeying on a day which he had vowed to do so?
If a person makes a vow that he
will observe fast on a particular day whether he is journeying on that day or
not, he should observe the fast on that day although he may be journeying.
A traveller intends to stay at a place
for ten days, observes fasting and after Namaz-e-Zohrayn learns that he cannot
stay for more than a week at that place.
Is he obliged to offer complete prayers and observe Ramazan fasts on the
following six days?
If he prays one four rak’at prayer (with intention of staying for ten days) and
then changes his plan, he will continue to offer complete prayers and to
observe fasting. There is no
difference among the Mujtahedeen about this rule.
May a person observing a Mustahab
fast, break it during the day if a Momin offers him/her something to eat?
If a person observes a Mustahab
fast, it is not obligatory on him to complete it.
In fact, if one of his brethren-in-faith invites him to a meal, it is Mustahab
that he accepts the invitation and breaks the fast during the day time even if
it may be after Zohr.
How should a person make the niyyat
(intention) of a fast?
A person can make niyyat every
night of the Holy month of Ramazan that he would be fasting on the following
day, and it is better to make niyyat on the first night of the month of Ramazan
that he would be fasting throughout the month.
The last time for making niyyat to observe a fast is moments before Azan of
for ‘Mustahab’ fast one can make its niyyat at any time in the day, even
moments before Maghrib provided he has not committed any such act which
invalidate the fast.
a person sleeps before Azan for Fajr prayers in Ramazan or any other day fixed
for an obligatory fast without making a niyyat, and wakes up before Zohr to
make a niyyat of fast, his fast will be in order.
But if he wakes up after Zohr, as a precaution (Ehtiyaat), he should continue
with the abstinence with the niyyat of Qurbat and then observe its ‘qaza’ also.
What should one do if he is not
certain whether it is the last day of Shabaan or the first day of the month of
In such case the fast on that
day is not obligatory. If, however,
somebody wants to observe fast on that day he cannot do so with the intention
of observing the month of Ramazan fast, but if he makes an intention that if it
is month of Ramazan then it is the month of Ramazan fast and if it is not the
month of Ramazan then it is Qaza fast, his fast will be valid. But it is better to observe the fast with the
intention of Qaza fast or some other fast, and if it is known later that it was
month of Ramazan then it will automatically be considered as month of Ramazan
Which things make a fast void (batil)?
There are nine acts which
or any sexual activity resulting in ejaculation.
false things to Allah (s.w.t.) Holy
Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
Ahlul Bayt (a.s.)
heavy dust or thick smoke.
one’s entire head in water.
in need of Ghusl-e-Janabat, Ghusl-e-Haiz or Ghusl-e-Nifas up to the time of
a liquid enema and
Q256. Will the fast of a person be valid if
he/she eats or drinks something unintentionally?
A. If while eating and drinking, a
person realises that it is Fajr, he should throw the food out of his mouth, and
if he swallows it intentionally, his fast is void.
But if a person eats or drinks something forgetfully during the day time his
fast is in order.
If someone, who needs Ghusl-e-Janabat
in the nights of month of Ramazan sleeps and does not wake up before the time
of morning Azan, will his fast be in order?
If a person in Janabat, does not
perform Ghusl (bath) intentionally till the time of Fajr prayers his/her fast
becomes void and if the time left before Azan is short he/she should perform
tayammum and observe the fast.
However as a precaution (Ehteyat) its qaza should be observed.
Will a woman’s fast be valid if she
gets paak from Haiz or Nifas just near the Fajr Prayers, in the month of
Ramazan and has no time left for ghusl (bath) or tayammum.
Yes, her fast will be in order.
What is the Kaffarah (atonement) of
intentionally not observing fast of the month of Ramazan?
In case of intentionally not
observing or breaking a fast (of the month of Ramazan), in addition to making
up the Qaza (defaulted) fast he may atone for the same by any of the 3 methods
a slave, or
fast for 60 days. The first 31 days
of this fast must be consecutive but if he/she fails to fast on any day in this
period without any just excuse, he should commence fasting all over again. However it would not matter if he did not maintain
continuity (after 31 days) for completion of the remaining 29 fasts, or
60 poor Muslims to their fill.
However if it is not possible for him to fulfill any of these he should give
Sadaqah (charity) according to his/her status and seek Divine forgiveness.
A person fasts in the month of Ramazan
for several years and he does not know, due to ignorance, that the ghusl (bath)
of janabah is obligatory, so he does not perform ghusl (bath).
His fast is correct and no
expiation (kaffarah) is obligatory for him.
Is it permissible to offer meals to
those who are not fasting, that is those with and without an excuse for not
fasting in the month of Ramazan, whether in restaurants or in homes, if this
offering is not considered disrespectful to the sanctity of the noble month?
A. It is permissible (to offer meals) to
those who have an excuse (for not fasting) [but not to the others].
What is the ruling for a person who
travels after noon (zohr) during the month of Ramazan while fasting?
He should complete his fast and
there is no qaza on him.
And if he travels before noon, having
intended to do so and decided on the trip the night before?
There is no fasting for him on
this day. He will break his fast
after reaching the hadd al-tarakhkhus and he is obligated to offer its qaza
Some allergy sufferers use an
apparatus which we call an ‘inhalator’ to assist them in easy breathing. After its placement in the mouth and pressing it,
this apparatus emits what is like pressurized gas.
Can this apparatus be used at the time of fasting?
One who uses this (apparatus) remains on his fast and his fast is valid.
If I attain personal confidence that
the astronomical calculations on the birth of the crescent (hilal) announced by
the experts are correct, can I, relying on my confidence, confirm the first of
the month and fast or for the Eid and break my fast?
Confidence in the birth of the
crescent and its visibility is of no consequence; rather, the actual sighting
has to be confirmed by yourself or someone else.
Yes, it is enough to confirm the actual sighting in another city if it shares
the horizon of your city, such that a sighting in that city would necessitate a
sighting in your city, if there were no barriers such as clouds, dust,
Can you tell me whether it is
permitted to fast on behalf of parents who are still alive, in order to make up
for fasts they have missed (i.e. qaza fasts).
This cannot be done for the onus
is theirs as long as they are alive.
Should they not be able to fast for reasons of disability or handicap, then
fast is not wajib (obligatory) on them.
Prayers are wajib at all times, albeit could be performed in different
positions. If standing is not
possible, then sitting; if sitting is not possible, then lying down; and the worst
scenario is a person praying with movements of eyelids to show positions of
ruku and sajda. Should anyone be
unconscious as in coma, then prayers are not wajib (obligatory). Mas’ala of Ayatullah Seestani (From ‘Islamic Laws’):
As long as a person is alive, no other person can offer his qaza on his behalf,
even if he himself is unable to offer them.
Can a person swallow his own saliva
while fasting? Can a person taste the salt of a cooked dish?
It is not an offence to swallow
the saliva, even if it is intentionally collected or by thinking of juicy
things. It is permissible to taste
the salt provided, it should not enter the throat.
The person must spit out the substance completely.
Can married couples perform sexual
intercourse in the month of Ramazan?
During the daytime sexual
intercourse is not permitted in the month of Ramazan.
It is makruh for a person fasting to kiss or play with his wife unless he is
sure that there will be no discharge.
Will it be necessary to give Kaffara
for breaking a Mustahab fast?
A person is not liable to give any Kaffara for breaking a Mustahab fast,
intentionally or unintentionally.
Kaffara is due on fast for the month of Ramazan and the Qaza (lapsed) of it
when broken after midday.
Before beginning a fast of Ramazan,
how much earlier should one stop eating before morning prayers?
Even one second before dawn is
sufficient. If one does not know
when the dawn breaks, the person should stop eating a few minutes earlier.
Is eating before dawn (i.e.
Sehri) Wajib (obligatory)?
Sehri is not Wajib (obligatory). It is Mustahab (i.e. recommended) even if it is only water or a piece
of date. As far as possible, one
should not ignore the importance of Sehri.
When we observe that the new moon
sighted on the last day of the month of Shabaan is big, what should be one’s
intention for next day’s fast - first or second of Ramazan?
If it is the end of the month of
Shabaan and the new moon appears to be of the second day, one should keep a
Qaza after the end of Ramazan. And
it is not necessary to specify whether one is fasting for the second or third
or fourth day.
I would like to know what is the
reason that the Shia Muslims break their fast after the Maghrib Prayers, while
most of the Sunni Muslims break their fast before the Maghrib Prayers, i.e. as
soon as the sun sets. Are there any Hadees
or Tradition of the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) in this regard?
The followers of the Ahlul-Bayt
break their fast when the real Maghrib takes place.
The real Maghrib is not just what some people see as sunset, which is in fact a
superficial one, but when it really sets, and that is known by the vanishing of
the reflection of sunlight on the opposite side of the sun (Eastern Reddish),
which confirms that the sun has set.
This happens many minutes after the superficial sunset.
in the Holy Qur’an, you find the verse: “And complete fasting till night” which
means beginning of the night and is not just the superficial sunset when nobody
can claim that night has started.
This shows that the real time of breaking fast according to the Holy Qur’an and
the authentic Sunnah is when the night starts, and that is exactly what the
Do I have to give fitra in respect of
the guest who comes to my house before Id-ul-fitr night although he himself
gives his own fitra? Please clarify.
If the guest stayed over the
night of Id-ul-fitr at your house, then his fitra will be due on you, but if he
had stayed part of night and left, then his fitra is not on you.
During fasting, is it allowed to brush
teeth to avoid bad smell? Also, can I trim, cut or shave small hair around my
beard or any other part of my body or cut my nails during fasting?
Brushing one’s teeth, or shaving,
cutting or trimming one’s hair from any part of the body, or cutting one’s
nails during fasting is allowed and it does not affect one’s fast.
Is a recommended fast invalidated due
to unintentional intake of food or water?
A recommended fast and even
obligatory ones are not invalidated by unintentional eating or drinking water. When the person remembers, he should spit out that
which is in his mouth. If after
remembering, he were to eat a little and throw the rest out, his fasting will
What are the consequences in case a
person cannot fast due to ill-health? What happens if one deliberately breaks
his fast or does not keep fasts when he is obliged to do so?
If an ill person cannot fast
he/she has to keep a Qaza fast afterwards, but if he/she cannot keep Qaza fast
either in the future due to continuous ill health, then he/she has to give
Fidya which is feeding one poor person for every day of missing fast. The poor person should be a Mo’min besides being
is a penalty for deliberately breaking fast or not fasting. Kaffara for each day is either freeing a slave or
feeding 60 poor persons for each day of not fasting (deliberately) or fasting
for two months for each day. Kaffara
is just a penalty and the person still needs to keep Qaza fast for the day he
Can one accept the tea or eatable
offered by one’s mother or wife and break a recommended fast?
It is recommended to accept an
invitation extended by a mo’min or mo’mina to consume lawful and clean food or
drink. The person will be
recompensed for the fast as well as for accepting the invitation. The recommended fast can be suspended at any time
of the day but the qaza (lapsed) fast or one kept for a vow which is not time
bound can be broken only before noon time.
Can a person who has not performed his
own Hajj go on behalf of another?
If the person cannot do it any
time, then he can go on behalf of another.
A person who can afford to go or earlier delayed going to Hajj cannot go for
Can a person do Niyabat for 3 or more
persons in performing Mustahab Hajj at one time?
A person can do Niyabat on
behalf of more than 1 person in the case of Mustahab Hajj.
But Wajib (obligatory) Hajj can be performed by a person as Niyabat for 1
person only at a time.
Can a person in the state of Ehram
stand under the shade of a tree or a building’s shadow?
After Ehram, there is no
objection to take shelter under a shade or shadow for the purpose of taking
rest or while residing at a place.
But it is not allowed while travelling.
cannot travel in a vehicle with a cover over it.
There should not be any shadow nor can a person cover his head with any
material while travelling.
Under what circumstances does Hajj
become Wajib (obligatory) on a Housewife who does not have any income of her
Hajj does not become Wajib
(obligatory) on her in this case.
Also it is not incumbent upon the husband, however rich he may be, to send or
take her along with him to Hajj. But
it would be better if the husband sends or takes her along with him for Hajj.
Can a person take bath in the state of
It is permissible but the person
should not use a soap which is fragrant and should not look into the mirror.
Can a person in Ehraam change into
some other clothes while resting?
The person while resting can
change provided it is unstitched.
What is the Kaffara for a person in
Ehram who walked under a shade deliberately?
One animal, whether goat or
sheep, should be slaughtered as Kaffara.
And one cannot distribute among friends, relatives and neighbours. It has to be served to poor Mu’mineen.
Is it necessary to offer
Tawaf-un-Nisa? Can one perform it in stitched clothes?
It is not Wajib (obligatory) but
the person who does not perform Tawaf-un-Nisa at the end of his Hajj rites will
not be able to return to conjugal relations with his wife.
Similarly, a bachelor will not be able to marry.
can be performed with stitched clothes.
With due respect, I have to state that
last year we had been fortunate to perform Hajj.
A group of other Mo’mina were with us, we have been staying in one big room at Mecca Sharif. The Masala (question) is that somebody’s dupatta
of Ehram has been brought back by us due to oversight, which we discovered
after coming back to our place. Now
what should we do? We have tried our best to find out its owner, but we did not
succeed. The same is lying with us. Could we give it to a poor lady? Or could we put
it in a Masjid for use by other ladies to perform Namaz?
If you cannot find the rightful
owner, you can give away the clothes in charity to any poor lady or leave it in
the mosque where ladies use such apparel to perform their Namaz.
Will a person in Ehraam who travelled
under the shade give one Kaffara or one Kaffara for each time the person came
out of shade and entered it again?
Kaffara (i.e. expiation) will be due only once for one lap of
journey. If a breach of prohibition
takes place many times, for instance, during the journey from Mecca to Arafat, one Kaffara will be due.
Can a person delegate another person
to perform the Hajj rites?
A physically able and healthy
person cannot delegate this religious obligation to anybody else. If he believes walking will be strenuous for him,
there are arrangements for wheel-chairs and palanquins.
Only if the person is completely sick and unable to perform Hajj, even with any
help and assistance, then he can delegate another person for Hajj.
Can one perform one Umrah Mufradah for
more than one person at a time?
Yes, you may even perform one
Umrah Mufrida on behalf of 100 people or more.
After all, it is a Mustahab (recommended) act.
Can a lady go with Na-mahram for Hajj?
If the Na-mahram accompanying
the lady sees her without hijab and there are chances of committing sin, the
lady cannot go for Hajj with a Na-Mahram person.
In the likelihood of such an event a woman cannot even go to the market or
it is not Wajib (obligatory) for a lady to go with a Mahram. She may go with other women.
Can a person perform Umrah Mufradah
between Umrah Tamatto and Hajje Tamatto?
The person cannot do Umrah Mufradah
between Umrah Tamatto and Hajj-e-Tamatto.
He should wait and complete the rites of Hajj-e-Tamatto.
Q293. A person can either give Kaffara or go for
Hajj. Can he proceed for Hajj if the
time for Hajj (i.e. from Shawwal onward) has neared, without paying
The person should pay the
Kaffara, irrespective of the fact that the months for the Hajj rites have
arrived. It will not be proper to
proceed for Hajj without giving the Kaffara.
Is Tawaf-un-Nisa obligatory for a
person doing hajj on behalf of dead Muslim?
It is wajib (obligatory)
What should a person do, when in the
course of Namaz-e-Tawaaf behind Maqam-e-Ibrahim, he gets pushed?
The person should return to his
position and complete his Namaz.
However, if he was in Ruku and then pushed away, he should not return to do
Ruku even if he had not said the recitations but instead, continue with sajdah
since it is not allowed to increase Wajib-e-Rukni acts.
A person has been sponsored by another
to go for Umrah and Kaffarah (penalty) becomes due on him.
Who is liable to pay the Kaffarah the sponsor or the doer?
The person who had gone for
Umrah is liable to pay the Kaffarah.
A person performing Hajj on behalf of
another fails to perform Tawafun Nisa.
Does the wife of the person who hires become unlawful for him?
If a person who has been hired
by another person to perform Hajj fails to perform Tawafun Nisa, his wife (i.e. the
wife of the hired person) becomes unlawful for him.
If some one cannot go to Hajj, and he
knows that he does not have the ability or means to go, what should he do?
Grand Ayatullah Sayyed al-Khoei
states that this person should send someone on his/her behalf who has not gone
on the Hajj before, in his/her place.
However, Grand Ayatullah Sayyed Ali Seestani disagrees and states that in order
for someone in this situation to complete their Hajj they can send anybody,
although it would be better to send somebody who has not been on the Hajj
If someone is certain that he cannot
perform the Hajj and he knows that he will die, how can he complete his Hajj?
In order to complete his Hajj,
the person must write a wasiyya, or will, requesting someone to go on his
behalf. This person can be a
relative or somebody else.
If someone dies without performing the
Hajj, and at the same time he did not leave a wasiyya requesting someone to go
on his behalf, how is it possible for him to go on the Hajj?
This person’s Hajj will only be
complete if someone, be it a relative on other wise, performs the Hajj on his
behalf using the deceased person’s wealth.
If someone dies in debt and has not
performed the Hajj but has left a small amount of money should it be used for
the Hajj or to pay back the debt?
According to Sayyed al-Khoei,
the debt to Allah is greater and the Hajj takes preference, so the money should
be used to send someone on behalf of the Hajj.
Sayyed Seestani, says that the money should be given in order to may off the
Is it permissible to go for Umrah or
Ziyarat during the month of Ramazan?
One is allowed to travel during
the month of Ramazan even if it is to avoid fasting.
It is Makruh (i.e. undesirable) unless it is for Umrah or Ziyarat or
to serve in the army of an Islamic government or to save a life or if it is
after the twenty third day of the month of Ramazan.
When someone comes to Makkah to
perform the rites of Hajj on behalf of another (i.e. as a naib), himself lacking the capacity to
perform Hajj, and thus acquires the capacity to perform Umrah Mufradah, is it
obligatory for him to perform the umrah?
Apparently, umrah mufradah does
not become obligatory for the naib, whose duty is to perform umrah tamatto. However, it is better for the naib who thus
becomes capable to perform the umrah mufradah for the sake of caution (ehteyaat).
Is the wearing of Ehraam necessary for
Women may assume Ehraam in any
dress, with the exception of clothes made of pure silk.
Is it permissible for women who cannot
enter the halt in a mosque, on account of menses, to assume Ehraam outside the
Shajarah Mosque? What about assuming Ehraam from a parallel point for those
women who have no disability?
For those who travel to Makkah
by this route, it is not sufficient to assume Ehraam outside the Shajarah
Mosque. However, women having an
excuse must become mohrim while passing through the mosque, if possible. If they cannot do so, due to the crowd or a
similar reason, and they cannot also postpone Ehraam until their disability is
over, it is obligatory that they assume Ehraam at Johfah or a parallel point. Also, they can assume ehram from their place of
stay in Medina
by taking a vow (nazr).
Is it valid for women to take a vow to
assume ehram before the miqat without her husband’s permission? In general,
what is the rule about a woman’s vow taken without her husband’s permission?
A woman can take a vow without
her husband’s permission in his absence.
But caution lies in her abstaining from taking a vow without his permission when
he is present, and if she takes such a vow it would not be valid.
What is the rule concerning the use of
oil during the state of ehram? Does it entail a Kaffarah, and if it does, what
It is not permissible to apply
oil on the body or the head’s hair for the purpose of adornment or relaxation
of bodily members and the like, but there is no kaffarah for it unless the oil
has been perfumed, as some creams are.
In such a case that which is in accord with caution is to sacrifice a sheep, although
it’s not being obligatory is not improbable even in this case.
What is the rule concerning wearing
ornaments during ehram and what is the related kaffarah?
The use of any kind of ornaments
by women, as well as applying kohl, wearing finger rings, and applying henna
for the purpose of adornment are forbidden for both men and women, but no
kaffarah is required. If the use of
such things is considered adornment, it is better as an obligatory caution to
avoid them even if there is no intent of adornment.
It is not improbable that it is obligatory in the state of ehram to abstain
from everything that is considered adornment, even if there is no intent to
adorn oneself. Thus caution is not
to be neglected in this regard.
Wearing finger rings for the sake of istehbaab (reward) and the wearing of
ornaments by women that they usually wear at home are accepted, provided they
are concealed from the sight of even their husbands.
Is it permissible for the mohrim to
pass through the tunnel on his way from Makkah to Mina, though there is another
route which is longer?
There is nothing objectionable
Where should one slaughter the
sacrificial animal relating to the kaffarahs that become obligatory on a mohrim,
and how is it to be used?
The kaffarah may be given to the
poor, and the place of sacrifice, in the case of expiation for hunting during
umrah, is Makkah, and during Hajj it is Mina.
As a matter of caution, one should act in the same manner in relation to other
Is it permissible to interrupt an
obligatory or a mustahab tawaf?
It is permissible, although it
is more in accord with caution not to break off during an obligatory tawaf in a
way that is usually considered a violation of the continuity of sequence
What is the rule applicable to a
person who after returning to his hometown comes to know that his tawaf had
It is obligatory for him to
rectify his tawaf, either in person or, when he cannot do it himself by appointing
a naib. After performing a complete
tawaf with the intention of fulfilling his obligation, the prayer of tawaf
should be offered again.
Is it permissible to leave a gap of
time between tawaf and the prayer of tawaf?
It is obligatory to perform the
prayer of tawaf without leaving a time gap, and the criterion of whether there
is a gap or not is common judgement.
Accordingly, it is not improbable that a gap of few minutes for the performance
of a daily prayer would be considered a harmless gap.
Is it correct for a woman and a man to
pray by the side of one another behind the Maqam (of Ibrahim)?
There is no problem so far as
there is a distance of at least a wajab (about 20 centimetres) or the man
stands a little ahead of the woman.
What is the duty of the one who omits
the prayer of tawaf either intentionally or by mistake or due to his ignorance
of the rule?
Voluntary omission of the prayer
of tawaf invalidates the Hajj. But
in case it occurs due to ignorance of the rule or due to a lapse, one should
return to the Masjid al-Haram and offer the prayer if one is not far away and
can offer the prayer in its place without hardship.
But if one has gone far away from Makkah, one should perform it wherever one is
What is the duty of one who remembers
while performing the saie that he did not perform the prayer of tawaf?
He should break off the saie as
soon as he remembers it and perform the two rak’ats of the prayer at its proper
place and then return to complete the saie.
What is the duty of someone performing
umrah who omits taqsir, intentionally, unknowingly or by mistake and goes on to
assume the ehram for hajj?
If the omission was intentional
or due to ignorance of the rule of taqsir, and he assumes the ehram of hajj,
his umrah is most probably invalid and his hajj changes into Hajj al-ifraad. As a caution it is obligatory upon him to return
to perform the Hajj next year. That
which is nearer to caution (ahwat) is to perform an Umrah Mufradah this year
after the completion of Hajj al-Ifrad.
But if the omission of taqsir was on account of a lapse, his Hajj is valid and
as a supererogatory caution he should sacrifice a sheep.
Should one assume the ehram of Hajj
from a point within the old city of Makkah,
or can one assume it from any point within the present city?
It is permissible to assume
ehram from any point within the present Makkah.
But as a manner of caution it should not be outside the limits of the old
Makkah, and it is best to assume ehram in the Masjid al-Haram.
Is the time of the halt in Arafat from
the beginning of noon or later?
The caution in regard to the
halt in Arafat lies in making it from the beginning of noontime to sunset,
although it is not improbable that a delay amounting to the time that is
usually required for making the prayers of Zohr and Asr and going through their
preliminaries is permissible.
If someone forgets making the rami
(throwing of stones) and leaves Mina, should he return to perform it in person
or can he appoint a naeb, or should he perform its qaza the next year?
He should return and perform the
rami, and he cannot appoint a naeb to do it.
And if the Days of Tashriq are over, as a matter of obligatory caution he
should return to perform it or appoint a naeb to do it, and he or his naeb
should perform its qaza the year after as well.
Please explain the rule pertaining to
making the sacrifice at the new sacrificial grounds?
To offer the sacrifice in the
new sacrificial grounds is valid and permissible.
If one delays performing the sacrifice
beyond the Day of Id due to incapacity, should he also put off doing halq or
taqsir (shaving of head or cutting the hair)?
As a matter of caution he should delay it until the sacrifice is offered.
Is it permissible to perform the halq
at night? What is to be done if one were to forget making halq during the day?
From the viewpoint of caution,
it is better not to put off halq until the night, and if the delay is due to
having forgotten, one can perform it any time after the day of Id al-Azha.
What is the obligatory period for
spending the night in Mina? Is it sufficient to spend the first half of the
night from sunset to midnight? How about spending the second half?
The obligatory period of
spending the night in Mina is half of night and the mukallaf has the option
between the first half and the second, though spending the first half of the
night there is closer to caution.
If one does not make the nightly halt
at Mina from sunset to midnight, what is his duty? Is there any difference in
this regard between having some excuse, or having acted out of ignorance or
In such a case he should make
the halt during the second half of the night if one fails to make the
obligatory night halt, he should sacrifice a sheep for every night omitted and,
to be on the side of caution, there is no difference in this regard between one
who has a valid excuse and someone who acts out of ignorance or forgetfulness.
Does the rule that allows the
traveller the option to offer the (four rak’at) prayer either fully or with
qasr in the Masjid al-Haram and the Prophet’s Mosque apply to the entire city
of Makkah and of Medina? Is there any difference in this
regard between the new and the old localities?
The rule allowing the option
between offering the daily (four rak’at) prayers either completely or with qasr
applies to the entire cites of Makkah and Medina and these cities as such are
the subject of the rule, without their being a difference between the old and
the new localities. However, caution
in this matter requires one to confine the option to the old city limits of
Makkah and Medina,
or, rather, to the two holy mosques.
A man who is financially able in a
particular year is prevented from travelling because he could not obtain a visa
to perform the hajj in that year.
Then, he is forced to spend the money, which was set aside for hajj, after the
season, to fulfill his living needs.
Thereafter, he is not able to obtain the money needed to perform the hajj.
If he acquires the ability in
later years, then hajj is obligatory for him, and if he does not acquire the
ability, then it is not obligatory for him.
From which direction should one throw
pebbles at jamratul aqabah (in Mina)?
Stone it from the front [because
it is not permissible to stone it from the back].
What is the ruling on one who enters
the state of Ehraam from Jeddah, instead of Johfah, because of ignorance?
If he made a nazr for the Ehraam
in Jeddah, then his Ehraam is valid.
Is one permitted after tawaf and saei,
to cut the hair (taqsir) of someone else who has requested him to do so, before
cutting his own?
It is not permissible for one to
attend to the taqsir of others before his own.
Can a person do niyabat for 3 or more
persons in performing Mustahab Hajj at one time?
A person can do niyabat on
behalf of more than 1 person in the case of Mustahab Hajj.
But Wajib (obligatory) Hajj can be performed by a person as Niyabat for 1
person only at a time.
If a person on whom Hajj was wajib
(obligatory), dies before having performed it, is it wajib (obligatory) to
first spend, out of the inheritance, on sending someone to Hajj on behalf of
If Hajj was wajib (obligatory)
on a person, and he dies before performing it, then it becomes wajib
(obligatory) on his heirs to set aside an appropriate amount of money from the
money or properties he left behind before these are distributed, and to send a
person for hajj on behalf of the departed.
This Hajj must be performed without delay.
It is said that if a person performs
Umrah during the month of Ramazan he will get more sawab than if he performs it
in any other month. But if one goes
for Umrah during Ramazan then one’s fasting which is obligatory (wajib
(obligatory)) would become Qasr. So
what should one do?
The best month for Umrah Mufrada
is Rajab, although Umrah Mufrada is recommended (Mustahab) every month in the
year. If you go for Umrah during the
month of Ramazan, then you may stay in Makkah for 10 days or more so that you
can observe fasting. If you stay for
less than ten days in Makkah itself, you cannot observe fast, and you should
observe your Qaza fasts later on.
Which is the time for performing Umra-e-Mufrada?
I am told that if we perform after the 1st of Shawwal then Hajj is Wajib
(obligatory) for that year. Please
If you have already performed
Hajj, then it will not be Wajib (obligatory) again on you to perform Hajj. But if you have never performed Hajj, and you
performed Umrah in Shawwal, then this means that you can perform Hajj also. This makes Hajj Wajib (obligatory) on those who
did not perform Hajj before.
Can Sahme Saadaat (50% share of
saadaat) be given in a form other than money? Is it necessary to inform the
person that we’re giving him khums money?
Sahme Saadaat can be given in
the form of gifts and lawful articles.
According to Ayatullah Khoei (M.D.A.) it
should be given to poor, pious and deserving Sayyeds.
And it is not necessary to inform the recipient that he or she is receiving
khums money just as one gives in charities without saying anything.
Would khums be applicable on the
jewellery, which has been given by parents to their married daughter?
If one knows that the parents
have not paid the khums when it was due, it will have to be extracted from the
value of the jewellery. Now if the
parents have paid the khums but the jewellery is kept by their daughter in safe
deposit after one year’s period, khums will have to be paid. Only if khums had been paid previously and the
jewellery is put to use by wearing it, khums would not have to be paid.
Is Khums payable on the amount outstanding
in a Provident Fund Account?
No, it is yet not 100% in your
ownership. At the time when it’s in
your ownership only, then Khums is applicable.
Would Khums be applicable on eatables
like rice, oil, etc. which remains
at the end of the year?
The 20 percent value of the remaining eatables should be calculated for each
item at the year end and paid as Khums.
A person living at his parent’s house
saves money over a period of five years and buys a house where he later lives
with his wife. Would he have to pay
the Khums on the price of the house?
Every person should have a date
for accounting purposes. At the end
of one year, whatever savings have been made after making all lawful expenses,
20% of it should be given as Khums.
Of this, 50% be paid to poor and pious Saadaat (descendants of Hazrat Muhammad
Aale Muhammad (a.s.)) and 50% be given to Naeb-e-Imam or those who
have his permission to collect Sahme-Imam.
the person did not pay them at the end of every year, he will have to pay the
Khums on the total amount saved at the end of 5 years.
The amount, which remains after deducting the Khums, will not attract Khums in
the next year unless there is an increase.
Then, Khums would be deducted from the increased amount only.
A person has $2000 after paying Khums. In the New Year $ 1000/- is spent on necessities. Now at the end of the New Year, there is a total
saving of $ 3000/- would the person be liable to pay Khums on $ 3000/- or $
The Khums should be removed from
$ 2000/- since that is the savings from the income of the second year.
Q341. A person wishes to pay Khums on the amount
spent for purchasing a television set, years ago.
Should he pay according to its original price or the new price?
The person should consider the
original price and the price it would fetch on selling it presently. And pay Khums on the amount, which is more.
What should a person do, who, at the
end of the year finds that if he paid Khums, he won’t be able to buy a house
ever in his life?
The person should pay for buying
a house in advance as part payment or buy a room before the due date of Khums. But he should use it before the Khums date.
A person gets his superannuation dues
from his company after retirement and invests the same in a business venture
before his date for accounting Khums is due.
Will the person have to pay Khums on this investment?
lf the person has no other
source of income, then only the savings made from the profit of the business
will not attract Khums. Otherwise,
the person having another source of income will have to pay Khums on the total
amount received as superannuation dues.
Will the VCR and Car bought from this
year’s profit attract Khums?
lf the VCR and Car are used as
necessities and not for show-off or pastime then it will not attract Khums. If they are used for any un-Islamic purpose, Khums
will have to be paid on the amount spent on buying them.
WilI a lady has to pay Khums from her
full income since what she spends on household expenses is her husband’s
Yes, she will have to pay Khums
on her full income. In case her
husband’s income is insufficient, she can spend on household expenditure before
the year-end for accounting Khums.
Q346. Can a married lady give gifts and Sadaqa
(charity) from her income without paying Khums?
A married lady can give gifts
and charity from her income before the end of the year and if the year is
complete, she should first pay Khums from her savings.
Can a person re-invest the profit of
his business in the same business without paying Khums?
It is not permissible to
re-invest the savings without paying Khums when the due-date has arrived. The person should first remove Khums &
re-invest the rest.
If a person pays Khums and give it
away to some person who has proved his authority of doing so, but later finds
that what he has done is not right and that the person was not a right one. In this condition what should the Khums payer do?
Should he pay the Khums again?
If the person has not done full
enquiry before paying then he has to pay his Khums again.
If he has done his best in enquiry then he has to ask for his money back to
give it to a proper place.
What should a person do who has never
paid Khums in his life?
The person should sincerely
repent, seek Allah’s forgiveness and after calculating the savings made from
the time of maturity should pay 1/5th of it as Khums.
Is it obligatory for the son to pay
Khums from the amount received from his father who never paid Khums?
It is obligatory.
A person pays kaffara for his fasts
before his khums date. Will khums be
due on that amount?
Khums will not be due on kaffara
because it is a necessary expense.
How does one remove khums of a carpet?
Since actual division is not
possible one fifth its value should be calculated and given as khums.
What should one reply to the
accusation of Non-Shias that if Khums was such an important issue, it would’ve
been mentioned many times, whereas it has been spoken of in the Qur’an only
It is true that Khums has been
clearly mentioned only once in the Holy Qur’an namely verse no 42 in Surah
Anfaal. Firstly, there are many
verses which refer to Khums without mentioning it by name.
Secondly, there are very few verses which refer to Allah’s Oneness and the
Prophet’s Last Messenger ship. Does
that mean that this truth is of less significance? It is the way of Bani Israel
to insist on unnecessary clarifications which only made life difficult for them. Muslims should consider it sufficient that when a
command comes from Allah and His Messenger, they obey it unhesitatingly.
Some Muslims believe that Khums is not
applicable today because the word “Ghanemtum” refers to “spoils of war?”
This misconception is due to the
wrong translation of the word ‘Ghanemtum” as “spoils of war”. The word has been invariably used to mean cattles,
spoils of war, treasure, mineral and anything which one gains or of value. It has been reliably mentioned in many books of
Sunni scholars including Bukhari and Muslim that Khums is due on pearls removed
from the sea when the ordinance of Khums was decreed, every Muslim was paying
it. In fact, all sects of Islam consider
Khums to be applicable on treasure.
understands the Holy Qur’an better than the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) who lived with the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) or
those so-called scholars who never met him? Understanding Qur’an by its
external meaning alone is not sufficient.
The existence of so many sects of Islam is a direct consequence of personal
perceptions of Islam. The Holy
famous narrative is well-known, in which he said: “I have fought for the “Tanzeel”
(revelation) and Ali (a.s.) will fight for its “Ta’veel” (interpretation) “. That is why we accept the meaning and
interpretation of Allah’s commandments only from the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
his Ahlul Bayt (a.s.).
A person receives a costly gift, which
is not used, and after a month his date for removing khums arrives. Will he have to pay Khums on it? What if the gift
was given from money whose Khums had been paid?
When a person receives a gift,
irrespective of the fact that it had been given from Khums-free money, it becomes
part of the receiver’s account. When
it is not used or its value is in excess of the receiver’s annual expenses, he
will have to remove Khums from it.
A person buys jewellery for his wife
who wears it occasionally. Then for
one complete year it is not used and she has no intention of wearing it. Is Khums applicable on it?”
In this case, Khums is
applicable on it. As far as a thing
is in use, Khums does not become applicable on it.
Is Khums due on what a person sets
aside every year as dowry for his daughter?
If the person purchases dowry
out of the profit made in a year in that year itself and it is not beyond his
status, it is not necessary for him to pay Khums on it.
A person’s year ends on Eid-ul-Az’ha. Will Khums be applicable on the money he spends
for Hajj and Ziyarats (pilgrimages) in that journey?
Khums is due on the money which the person spends after Eid-ul-Az’ha because he
will be spending the savings of the year in the second year.
A person owes Khums as well as
Kaffarah (atonement) of the Ramazan fasts.
Is he free to pay anyone of them first?
If Khums is due on a person and
it is also obligatory for him to make atonement and he cannot make both the
payments, and if the property on which Khums has become obligatory has not
perished, he should first give Khums.
And if it has perished, it is optional for him either to pay Khums or to make
payment of atonement first.
Is it obligatory for a person who gets
some property from a person who does not believe in paying khums, to pay khums
It is not obligatory for the
receiver to pay the khums.
Similarly, it is the not the responsibility of the person who receives a gift
or purchases something on which khums has not been paid, to do so.
Can a person give the share of the
Sayyeds from his Khums to his wife who is a Sayyedah?
On the basis of obligatory
precaution, he should not give khums to her so that she may meet her own
expenses with it. It would be
permissible for the husband to give khums to her so that she may use it on her
Is Khums [religious tax] waajib
[compulsory] on a person who has a qarz [dues payable]?
If you are under debt and during
your khums year, you have paid out a part of your debt then this payment can be
considered as your expense, other wise qarz does not effect khums payment. It still becomes applicable.
Is khums applicable on ‘Nazr’ (vow)
and Kaffara (atonement)?
Whatever a person spends on vow
and atonement is a part of his annual expenditure and khums is not applicable
Is it obligatory to pay khums on what
is given as gift or prizes?
Giving a gift or a prize is
included in annual expenditure and it is not necessary to pay khums on it, provided
it is not beyond his (i.e. the giver’s) status.
Can a son take Khums out of the
property of his father who does not want to pay Khums due on his property,
without his knowledge?
The person cannot take khums out
of his father’s property without the permission of the religious head.
Do housewives need to have a date for
themselves for calculating khums, considering the fact that they don’t have any
income of their own?
In Islam, women are entitled to
own property, conduct business, and receive inheritance and gifts besides
saving money from the household expenses.
So she is liable to account for her personal possessions and assets. Hence even housewives, or for that matter, all
mature and sane men and women should have a date for themselves for calculating
Can one take the khums to another town
for payment even though deserving persons are present in his hometown?
Even if a deserving person is
available in the hometown of a person, he can carry khums to another town and
give it to a deserving person.
However, he himself should bear the expenses of taking khums to the other town
and in case khums is lost, he is responsible for it although he may not have
been negligent in looking after it.
Can a person give the share of the
Holy Imam (a.s.)
from his khums to a representative of a mujtahid whom he does not follow?
The person should, on the basis
of obligatory precaution, obtain permission from the mujtahid whom he follows
or his representative before giving the Sahme Imam (a.s.) to a representative of a mujtahid whom he does
Is the bath of a person in order who
pays the water-bill out of money whose khums has not been paid?
If a person pays the water-bill
out of money whose khums has not been paid by him, he commits an illegal act
but apparently his bath is in order and he remains responsible to pay khums to
those persons who are entitled to it.
Can a person deduct his losses from
the profit made before calculating khums in the same year?
The person can deduct an
equivalent amount of losses incurred from the profit made before he sustained
the said loss and not from the profit made after he sustained the said loss, be
it in the same year.
Can a person pool his income from two
sources before calculating Khums?
If you have two different
professions, you cannot, on the basis of obligatory precaution, make up the
loss from one side from the profit made from the other.
But, for example, if you receive rent from a property and are also engaged in
trade, you should pay Khums at the end of the year on what exceeds your
expenses. And if you make profit in
one and sustain loss in the other, on the basis of recommended precautions, you
should pay khums on the profit made by you.
Would unlawful property become lawful
to a person once khums is paid from it?
If the real owner of the
unlawful property is known. The
person should make a compromise with the owner and if the owner is not
agreeable to a compromise, the person should give him the complete property. If the owner is not known the person should give
it as alms on behalf of its owner and the obligatory precaution is that he
should also obtain permission from the Religious Head.
Payment of Khums from an unlawful property cannot make it lawful.
A person buys a shop by taking a loan
which he repays from his earlier business.
Will khums be due on it?
The person will have to pay Khums on the amount re-paid by the year’s end for
the purchase of the shop.
If somebody does not remember how much
he has earned in the past many years and now he wants to take out Khums what he
is to do?
He has to make a rough estimate. Otherwise he is to refer to Naeb-e-Imam or his
representative to solve his problem.
If one puts his money in Fixed
Deposits is Khums to be paid?
Applicability of Khums depends
on ownership. His ownership does not
change and hence he has to pay Khums.
Khums is not dependant on any conditions of cash or kind or in hand. If he is the owner he has still his obligation to
If one puts his money in Fixed
Deposits or buys Unit Trusts etc.,
on the due date of his Khums he may not have liquid money.
Is Khums applicable?
Applicability of Khums depends
on ownership. His ownership does not
change and hence he has to pay Khums.
Khums is not applicable on any conditions of cash or kind or in hand. If he is the owner he has still his obligation to
One person took out Khums from Rs. 1000/- and Rs.
800/- was left with him. After one
year the same Rs. 800 is still with
him. Must be take out Khums again on
If the same amount is left till
the next year then it is not wajib (obligatory) to take out Khums.
I have purchased a scooter on loan recently
for Rs. 17000/-. How much Khums do I have to pay on it? Can I pay
the Khums in instalments? If I can pay in instalments, in how many instalments
do I have to pay? The loan is to be repaid in 60 months @ Rs. 250/- p.m.
If you have purchased the Scooter
from the amount of your current year income and if you have bought it for your
use and livelihood and if you are paying from your income in monthly
instalments then there is no Khums payable.
But if you had the money saved from last year or earlier years, and if Khums
had not been paid on that, then Khums will have to be paid out of it. Khums can be paid in instalments after permission
from Marja-e-Taqleed or his Vakil.
Somebody purchased house from money
out of which he did not give Khums.
Now the price has gone up, what needs to be done?
If the house is purchased for
residence and not for business then he has to take out Khums on original value. But if purchased for investment or business, Khums
is applicable on market value.
To whom do we give Khums and can we
keep it with us for a long time or put it in business till we get chance to pay
Khums is two parts, one 50% is
Imam’s share and cannot be used even for Masjid or Imambara or any other such
purposes without the permission of Naeb-e-Imam.
50% is for the pious Sadaat. The
Marjae Taqleed Aqae Khoei gave permission to give Sahme Sadaat directly to the
Can somebody give Khums to his needy
No, Khums has its own rules; he
can give from his remaining balance of 80%.
However if he is constrained then he should ask the Naeb-e-Imam who may give
him permission depending on individual case.
Is Khums a wealth tax? What is the
Khums cannot be referred to as a
wealth tax because generally wealth tax does not take into account the
lawfulness or unlawfulness of its source, the profit or loss incurred in a
particular year and whether the land on which treasure is discovered belongs to
a Muslim or non-Muslim and so on. While
Khums considers legal as well as moral aspects of savings, inheritance,
minerals, property, etc. Khums is
20% of the net amount or value of lawful saving which remains after deducting
the lawful expenses incurred and the annual necessities of life. At present, one half of the 20% Khums belongs to
the Twelfth Imam (a.s.) (called Sahme Imam) and the other half to poor
orphans, destitute, and those of the Hashimites who may run out of money
(called Shame Saadaat). Sahme Imam
should be paid to a qualified Mujtahid or his representative.
How is Khums calculated?
Khums is very simple to
calculate. From the savings which
remain after all one’s annual, lawful and standard expenses are deducted from
the income. 20% or 1/5th of this
amount is Khums. This should be
given with the intention of qurbatan elallah (for the pleasure of Allah ta’ala). Next year on the same date whatever you have saved
during that year will attract Khums.
Can a person buy things so as to avoid
paying Khums before his due date?
Khums is not due on things,
which are necessary. If there is no
necessity, the things bought will attract Khums.
Businessmen take loans from a Bank. On their date of Khums what is to be done?
They must calculate all their
assets and pay Khums. This loan
cannot be called “to be in debt”.
This debt is for business and not for their necessity of livelihood (existence).
Some people think that the Khums can
be forgiven by Ulemas in some cases, is it so?
No it is impossible to forgive
Khums because an Alim or anybody else does not have any right, because the
Khums does not belong to him. It
belongs to Imam and Ahlul Bayt-e-Rasool.
The Marja-e-Taqlid or his Vakeel can consider permission in instalments for
those who cannot pay lump sum.
Can a parent keep aside some cash or
kind for her daughter’s marriage? Will this saving attract Khums?
If a person cannot prepare all
the dowry for his daughter at the time of her marriage, and has to do so over a
few years, and if it is deemed unbecoming for him not to give away any dowry,
Khums will not be liable on what he purchases during the year, provided it is
within his means. But if he exceeds
his means, or spends the profit of one year to buy the dowry in the following
year, he will pay its Khums.
A person pays kaffara for his fasts
before his khums date. Will khums be
due on that amount?
Khums will not be due on kaffara
because it is a necessary expense.
A person buys a garment for an
occasion. After wearing it, he puts
it away and a year passes without it being worn a second time. Is khums obligatory on it? Likewise, (is khums
obligatory) with respect to jewellery temporarily used and then set aside for
more than a year without being used?
If the garment is of the type
customarily prepared for similar occasions in the years that follow, then khums
is not obligatory. Otherwise, based
on obligatory precaution, khums applies to it.
The same situation applies to jewellery.
God knows best.
Is khums obligatory for furnishings
that the mother prepares for her daughter (like marital gifts) when a number of
years elapse before they come into use?
Khums is not obligatory on them
if not preparing (the marital gifts) gradually damages her prestige, because it
would not be easy for her to prepare them at the time of her marriage. God knows best.
If a person, who has not paid khums
fully, dies and the cash money left behind by him is not enough, does his
property need to be sold to cover the remaining unpaid khums?
If the estimated amount of khums
is more than the cash left by the deceased person, then his property must be
sold to pay off the total amount of khums.
I owe someone some money, but cannot
repay him immediately and I have some savings also.
Is khums wajib (obligatory) on me?
Khums is wajib (obligatory) on
all your savings, even if you have debts.
If you repay your debts before the date of khums, then khums is applicable on
whatever remains with you. If you do
not repay your debt, then khums is applicable on all you have.
Would the Namaz of a person be valid,
when he offers it on a property, purchased with the money whose Khums has not
Possession of that property is
unlawful and the prayer, which he offers on it, is void.
Every month I remit money to an
investment fund to purchase shares.
When calculating Khums, in my opinion, I think I should not consider these
shares as they only have paper value and are not in my possession at the time
of calculating Khums. Also, I feel
that when I finally sell the shares, then the cash would be in hand and then
Khums should be calculated. Am I
right? If not, then how do I calculate the amount I have to pay every year as
the value of the shares keeps changing, i.e. it rises and falls?
The money you remit to the
investment fund to purchase shares is still your money, even though it is not
in cash. On your Khums date, you
should calculate the approximate current market value of your investment, and
take out the Khums of the value.
if you invest an amount after paying Khums of it, then this particular amount
of investment has no Khums again.
you pay Khums today for your investments valued at say Rs.1000,
and the same investment increases in value next year to, say, Rs.1400 then you do not need to pay Khums of all the
value of Rs.1400 of investment, but
only of the excess over the Rs.1000
the value becomes less than Rs.1000
or remains unchanged then there is no Khums again on the same investment.
My wife has jewellery which she has
previously worn. However, the
jewellery is sometimes not worn for more than a year.
Also some of the items are gifts and the rest are purchased jewellery. Does she (or myself as the bread-earner) have to pay
Khums on the jewellery each year that she doesn’t wear a particular jewellery?
If Khums is due on unworn items, then once we pay it, if she still doesn’t wear
it for another year, do we have to pay again?
If the jewellery was unworn for
one year, then Khums is to be paid out of its current market value. This is when you have bought it from your income
or gifts before paying the Khums, as jewellery for usual use is included in the
expenses. But if you had paid the
Khums from the original money before buying the jewellery, then Khums will not
be obligatory even if your wife does not use it for a year or more, as far as
the value of it is not more than the purchase value, and if it is more, then
you should pay Khums for the extra amount, since the original amount was
I have inherited an amount from my
mother after the sale of my father’s property.
I am a householder and do not work.
All my needs are fulfilled by my husband alhamdolillaah.
Do I have to pay Khums on the amount I have inherited? I plan to use it in
charity. This is the only amount
which I can say is mine. I am not
sure whether my parents paid Khums on their property.
Supposing they did not pay, what action should I take? And if they have paid
then what do I have to do?
If your expenses are looked
after by your husband and you have no responsibility for spending, then you
have to pay Khums on this amount immediately without waiting for one year. If your parents did not pay Khums on their money
or property, then Khums must be paid before distributing the wealth left by
Do I have to pay Khums on the
jewellery given to me by my parents on my wedding? Supposing they have not paid
it and I do not work so should my husband pay it?
The jewellery given to you by your
parents can be in different cases:
1. Your parents bought it from an
income before the date of their Khums, which means that Khums was not Wajib
(obligatory) on that money, so you do not need to pay Khums on it as far as you
use that jewellery in a usual manner.
2. Your parents did not pay Khums on
the amount of the purchase after Khums was Wajib (obligatory) on it, then Khums
remains Wajib (obligatory) on that amount.
is no difference whether you pay Khums, or your husband pays on your behalf if
you do not have the amount to pay.
If the money remaining after paying
khums is invested, is it necessary to pay khums on the yearly profit that
accrues on the invested amount?
Yes, it is obligatory to pay
khums on the savings of the profit.
Should khums be paid from the total
amount if a person is indebted?
Khums is obligatory on the
savings that you own, not on the money which belongs to others which is with
you as a loan. You must pay khums
out of what you own yourself.
I am a salaried person and I pay khums
on my annual savings. Do I need to
pay Zakat on that income as well?
You do not need to pay Zakat as
you do not have in your savings any of the nine items on which Zakat is
applicable, namely golden and silver current coins, camels, cows, sheep, wheat,
barely, dates, and raisins. The only
Zakat which is obligatory on you if you are not poor is Zakatul Fitr (Fitra).
I got married last year and I received
some gifts – one of them was a watch of significant value.
Will I have to pay khums on that?
If you use the gift usually in
your life, then there is no khums on it.
Khums will be applicable on unused gifts as it is obligatory on any unused
items and saved money.
Can one pay Khums on the amount which he
has just recorded, i.e. the duration of 1 year has not passed nor is that
amount the annual savings?
Yes he can pay, but it becomes
Wajib (obligatory) only after 1 year of getting the amount or on the due date
of his Khums payment.
Is Zakat levied on currency notes
received as income?
It is not obligatory to give Zakat of currency notes.
Is Zakat due on a person owning wheat
and barley if it collectively reaches the taxable limit i.e. 847 kilograms (approx.)
and does not reach it separately?
Zakat will be due on the wheat and barley if it collectively reaches the
If the proceeds of farming are 850 Kgs. of wheat and the government takes 50 Kgs. as land revenue, should Zakat be paid?
It is obligatory to pay Zakat on
800 Kgs. only.
Can Zakat be given to non-Muslims who
may be inclined to Islam?
Zakat can be given to those
non-Muslims who may be inclined to Islam or may assist the Muslims with the
Zakat money in fighting the enemies.
If someone dies and they pay zakat and
khums mad have also not performed the Hajj and it is known that they have left
a small amount of money behind, should this money be paid towards the khums for
According to Sayyed al-Khoei,
the Hajj takes preference. The
little money that is left should be used to send someone on the deceased person’s
behalf to perform the Hajj.
Can Zakat be given to the Sayyed? If
Zakat can not be given to a
Is it permissible to set aside charity
money in a specific place, with the intention of charity, and then to give it
to the poor? Can one change it with another currency?
The money does not become a
recommended charity by mere separation.
Under what conditions is Zakat
Zakat is of two types:
Zakat-ul-Fitra which is Wajib
(obligatory) on every non-poor Muslim on the night of Eid-ul-Fitr for himself
and all those who are under his economic responsibility.
2. Zakat-ul-Maal which is usually known
as Zakat. Zakat is Wajib
(obligatory) on nine items only, while khums is Wajib (obligatory) on
everything. These nine items are:
a. Golden coins which are currently
used as currency.
b. Silver coins, which are currently
used as currency.
last four edible items should be in a quantity of not less than 847 Kgs., which is called Nisab.
Out of the total harvest of 1,200
kilograms of wheat, I receive 600 kgs.
as my share. How much should I give
847 Kilograms is the
Haddun-Nisab i.e. the standard taxable quantity for paying Zakat on
it. Nisaab is not complete in 600
kgs. Hence, no Zakat is due.
Whom should zakat be paid to? Are
family members i.e. grandparents allowed to receive zakat (they are
presently in debt to someone)?
Zakat cannot be given to your
own grandparents, because of your responsibility to spend on them if they are
poor. Zakat is to be given to poor
and needy momins and in the way of Allah (s.w.t.) in
good cause charity and projects helping people.
Can a Mu’min do taqlid (follow the
most learned religious scholar in worship and non-worship acts) of a late
When the person was following
the guidelines of the Mujtahid in his life-time, he may continue after taking
permission of a living Mujtahid. A
person cannot start following the religious rules and regulations of a dead
A person doing taqlid of a Marja who
expires faces a new problem. Can he
do taqlid of a live Marja completely or in that which concerns new problems?
The person has to do taqlid of
the Marja who is alive, concerning new problem.
Is “taqlid” (following the ordinances
of a specialist in Islamic Law) the peculiar practice of Shias alone?
Everyone in the world follow the
instructions, ways and advices of others.
Sunni Muslims do taqlid of their four Imams.
Wahabis do taqlid of Ibn Abdul Wahab.
Even non-Muslim do taqlid. When you’re
aware that your child is suffering due to appendicitis, you don’t operate even
though you have a knife. It is but
reasonable to refer the case to those who are specialists in that field.
is not following blindly behind someone.
You are required to investigate and confirm the scholar’s eminence in terms of
knowledge, piety and justness before accepting his guidelines. Taqleed is a convenience since everyone cannot
devote a lifetime of study to derive precepts from thousands of volumes of
Islamic literature. Only a scholar
can tell whether a commandment is of specific or general nature, whether it was
given out of “taqiyya” (dissimulation) or given unconditionally, and so on. Hence “taqlid” is the most vital institution to
preserve the purity of Islamic Law.
I follow the taqlid of Ayatullah Khoei
A friend and I have been discussing the topic of Muta’.
Although we both realize that it is allowed in Islam, there is some
disagreement on its application. I
contend that once a person has entered a permanent marriage, Muta’ is no longer
allowed. My friend feels that muta’
is still allowed as long as the permanent wife knows and does not disapprove.
Both are wrong. Muta’ has no restriction or condition on a man
that he must be single. It does for
the woman. Nor does it contain a
condition of the wife’s approval.
Muta’ can be done without the permanent wife knowing.
Why is Taqleed necessary?
Taqleed is practising Islamic
detailed rules in accordance with the verdict (fatwa) of a highly learned
Islamic scholar (Mujtahid). It gives
the practice legitimacy since it is then based on a scientific proof, without
which the practice will be based on no proof, and thus be invalid, as far as
evidence is concerned. That is why
the Mujtahid scholars state in their books that deeds not based on taqlid or Ijtehad
or Ehtiyat, are invalid. Ijtehad and
Ehtiyat are practised by highly learned Islamic scholars, while others who are
not professionally trained and qualified in Islamic sciences, especially Fiqh,
may not know how to practise Ehtiyat.
Hence they have to practise Taqleed, which means following and practising in
accordance with the verdicts of the most learned scholar (who is usually called
Marja ‘taqlid) to keep their deeds valid, being then based on evidence.
I am more than 30 years old but have
not done Taqleed of any Mujtahid, Please tell me how to do Taqleed, and whether
it is wajib (obligatory) to do Taqleed?
Taqleed is obligatory (wajib
(obligatory)) on you because you must have your deeds based on authentic
evidences which are best known by the most learned scholars (maraj’e taqlid). Without taqlid your deeds will be without evidence
and might be then invalid. It is
very simple to do taqlid; it is just following the verdicts of the most learned
Islamic scholar, in your day to day practice.
It is not necessary to take his permission or to inform him, nor to recite
anything; just need to follow the Islamic rules according to the evidences of
the most learned scholar and this is the meaning of taqlid. You should ask those who really know about the
highly learned scholars to identify the most learned who should be followed. You can easily have details of the Islamic rules
from the books written by marj’e taqlid, or by visiting specific websites like
and www.al-shia.com and www.rafed.net and other similar websites.
When people die in house collapses or
accidents, is it correct to presume that they were punished by Allah?
Not at all. There might be some ‘Maslehat’
(Measure) of Allah. According to the
traditions of our Imams (a.s.) people who die in house collapse or burning, get ‘Sawaab’
(reward) of Martyrdom.
Can stitched cloth be used for kafan
Yes, stitching cloth is allowed
but whilst stitching, it is makrooh to use the mucous (i.e. the saliva of the mouth) in the process of
Q421. Is taking a bath mandatory for a medical
student who has to touch skeletons and corpses?
Bath becomes obligatory upon a person who
touches a dead body containing flesh and bones.
If only bones or a piece of flesh is touched, there is no necessity of taking a
bath. The student may touch a corpse
whilst wearing gloves and avoid the necessity of taking a bath.
Does it make any difference if the
dead body one touches, is that of a non-Muslim?
It does not make any difference. If a person physically comes in contact with the
dead body of a non-Muslim, he will have to take bath.
Is it permissible to donate parts of
the body during one’s life-time or after death?
But after death, it is not permitted without the deceased person’s consent in
his life-time. The dead person must
leave a Will regarding the same.
Is it permissible to allow post-mortem
of a dead Mu’min?
It is not permissible to allow
post-mortem of a dead Mu’min unless one is compelled and it is beyond one’s
means to prevent it.
What is the percentage of alcohol
permissible in medicinal use?
Alcoholic beer or wine is
prohibited in Islam and under no condition it can be permitted as medicine by
using any percentage of it. Allah
has not placed any curative power in alcohol.
But if a medicine has 1 or 2 percent alcoholic content and besides which, there
is no other medicine and not taking it might endanger the person’s life, only
in that case, it can be administered as far as it is a medicine.
The doctor has prescribed brandy for
massaging the body. Can I do it?
Brandy can be used for massaging
the body provided there is no other alternative.
But Namaz can only be offered after making the body “Paak” (ritually clean).
Can one visit a non-Muslim dentist who
puts impure substance inside a cavity and covers it with a metallic cap?
It is permissible to go to a
non-Muslim dentist. What is inserted
inside the body is considered as part of the body and it will have no effect on
the cleanliness of the body, provided the mouth and external region of the body
is made ritually clean.
Will a doctor be liable to pay
compensation for conducting a post-mortem of a Muslim?
It will be obligatory for the
person, who dissects the dead body of a Muslim, to pay compensation (Diyah),
according to the relevant rules.
However, if the life of another Muslim depends upon dissecting the dead body of
a Muslim, the person dissecting it will not be liable to pay compensation in
Is it permissible for a lady doctor to
treat general cases in which she has to touch Na-mahram men?
Only in the absence of a male
doctor and if the life of the patient is in danger can a lady doctor treat Na-mahram
men. However, if she can treat the
patient by looking through a mirror, she should not touch the Na-mahram man’s
body. And if she can treat by
touching the body, she should not look at him.
The lady doctor must necessarily wear gloves in such cases.
there are enough doctors of both sexes, hence, ladies should not go to male
doctors and men should not go to lady doctors for treatment.
There are a lot of substitute drugs
containing alcohol. What do you
suggest for them?
According to the Fatwa of
Ayatullah Khoei, ‘alcohol’ itself is not Najis, because it is not in itself an
intoxicant. It intoxicates when it
is mixed with some other liquids.
And it is then that it becomes Najis.
a drug which contains alcohol, but does not intoxicate, is not Najis.
Food or serum in a plastic bag
containing water, sugar and some medication is administered to a patient by
injection directly into the blood due to sickness or some other reasons such as
to provide nourishment. Is the
fasting person obliged to avoid it?
It is not obligatory, although
it is more appropriate (for him) to do so.
In some situations, the physicians can
confirm that the foetus is afflicted with serious physical deformities which
will not be treatable after birth, and it may not survive after birth, except
for a short while in pain (for the child), causing toil for the parents. Then he will die.
Is it permissible for the mother in such a situation to terminate (the
pregnancy)? Does it make any difference if it occurs before or after the soul
enters? And with the supposition that it is permissible, is diyah obligatory
and who pays for it?
Abortion is not permissible in
situations similar to the one mentioned, even prior to the entrance of the soul.
What is Jabira and what are its rules?
The splint to bandage a wound or
a fractured bone and the medication applied to a wound is called Jabira. Usually Jabira is to be wiped instead of washing
in Wuzu and Ghusl (bath), but wiping should be on the surface which must be
clean and paak. If it is not paak
then we should cover it with a paak piece and wipe on it.
For more details you may refer to page 57 in Islamic Laws by Ayatullah Seestani.
Me and my wife are having difficulties
having a child. I have been asked to
go to the hospital and provide my semen for analysis.
Would it be haram (prohibited) for me to provide this specimen as it would
involve the act of masturbation?
Masturbation is always haraam
(not allowed). However it is
permissible to have an ejaculation if it is done to you by your wife. By this way you can discharge your semen for
analysis and save yourself from haraam.
Q435. Many times people bring a Holy Qur’an and
ask two fighting persons to keep their hands on it and swear on it to decide
which one is speaking the truth. Is
A. When there is a dispute between two
persons, the one who is making an allegation or claim should give proof. He cannot say, “I swear on the Qur’an that I’m
speaking the truth”. The one who
denies it can swear. Although
legally permissible, it would be better to settle disputes without having both
the persons swearing on the Holy Qur’an.
Q436. A person enquires that he has been living
in an environment from childhood, where he never got an opportunity to learn
Arabic or Urdu. He asks whether by
reading the Quranic translation, he can get the same blessing as he would if he
knew Arabic reading.
A. Those who don’t know Arabic and
cannot recite the Quran in Arabic, then they should recite the translation and
the meanings of it and they will get Sawaab.
Regarding the amount of Sawaab, that depends on the Niyyat and the Sincerity. More sincere intention gives more and more Sawaab.
Q437. A person experiences seminal discharge
while asleep and due to shortage of time performs Morning Prayer with tayammum. Can he read Qur’an in that state?
A. The person may read the Qur’an except
the verses for which prostration becomes necessary.
He should read without touching the words of Holy Qur’an.
The person should perform Ghusl (bath) as soon as water becomes available. He cannot offer the next Namaz with Wuzu alone.
Q438. One person does not know how to read Qur’an. He just reads Bismillah Hir Rahmaan Nir Raheem on
each line. Will he get the same
sawab as that of reading Qur’an?
A. “Bismillah hir rahmaanir raheem” is
the greatest Ayat in the whole Qur’an.
To recite it accrues great “sawab.” For those who cannot read Qur’an, reading
and repeating this great Ayat does benefit them.
In fact one should repeat this Ayat at all times whilst walking, travelling and
whenever and where ever one can. A
lot of sawab and benefits will be derived.
Q439. Is the Holy Qur’an complete?
A. The Holy Qur’an is complete and without
any change either for more or for less.
The Shia Ulema (scholars) have written many books confirming this fact.
Q440. Is it sufficient to recite Ayatul Kursi
upto “Wa Howal A’liyyul A’zeem”?
A. It is sufficient. Ayatul Kursi is after all one ayat. Still it would be better to read till “Hum feehaa
Q441. Some people at times, out of distress
complain that they would’ve been better-off if they were not born at all. They ask: did Allah gave them a choice before
creating them? What should be our answer?
A. Allah mentions in the Holy Qur’an
that the purpose behind creation of human-beings was that they receive His
infinite Mercies and Bounties. Man’s
creation does not benefit Allah Ta’ala in the least bit.
He is Absolutely Needless.
for a choice brings to mind the case of children who are unsuccessful at their
studies and wish to run away. The
child is not in a position to choose who is good for him.
the Majestic and Mighty, did give each soul the choice of life and of
submission. It is mentioned in the
Holy Qur’an: “And when your Lord brought forth from the loins of the
children of Adam their seed, and made them bear testimony about their souls (He
asked): “Am I not your Lord?” They said: “Yes, we bear witness”.
to the barriers of short-sightedness, man does not see beyond the materialistic
life. Those who speak in this
fashion should be grabbed by the neck to see whether they are really fed up of
life. Those who believe in the
Unseen, Here-after world face life’s vicissitudes with patience and prayers. They do not despair and pose imprudent questions
to their Creator, Glory be His name.
Q442. Is there a verse in Holy Qur’an which
considers offering Namaz before its time as prohibited, say, one week in
A. The timings of Namaz has been
outlined in the Holy Qur’an. For
example, the verse: “Establish “Salaat” (Namaz) from the decline of the sun
till the darkness of the night, and the recital at the morn; verily the recital
of the morn is witnessed.”
offering a Namaz before its time is a violation of Allah’s commandments which
Q443. Who should decide whether a ‘Nauha’
(religious elegy) or Qur’an being recited amount to singing - the singer or the
A. The opinion of pious Mu’mineen who
are listeners will be acceptable while deciding whether a recitation amounts to
singing. Such recitation (which
amounts to singing) is haram.
Q444. Is it obligatory to recite salawat after
verse no. 56 of Surah Ahzab is heard
or read or read by one self?
A. Some Jurist have considered it as
obligatory. In the verse Allah Ta’ala
is informing Muslims of one of those things which He himself does, i.e.
sending blessing on the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.). So
even if it is not obligatory, a true Muslim won’t remain silent. It is highly commendable for a Muslim to send
blessings and salutations on the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.), even if he hears this verse in the midst of his
Q445. Do Shias adopt ‘Taqayya’ (dissimulation)
when denying ‘Tahreef’ in the Holy Qur’an?
The Shias believe that there has been no ‘Tahreef’ (distortion) in the Holy Qur’an
and the text of the Qur’an is pure and has not been tampered with.
Q446. Is it necessary to recite Qul Howallaaho
Ahad in every Namaz?
A. It is Mustahab (recommended) to recite
Surah Ikhlas at least once in the whole day in one of the obligatory prayers.
Q447. Will a person be considered to be a
disbeliever if he believes in “Tahreef” (alterations) in the Holy Quran?
A. A person believing in “Tahreef” of
the Holy Quran will not be considered a disbeliever.
He will be considered as a misguided person.
According to the greatest living Shi’ite Scholar of our time,
Ayatullah-ul-uzma, Sayyed Abul Qasim al Khoei, there is no alteration or
interpolation whatsoever in the Holy Quran which is in our hands.
Q448. Can a person touch the translation of the
holy Qur’an without having performed ablutions?
It is unlawful on the basis of
obligatory precaution, to touch without ablutions, the Name of Allah or His
special attributes in which ever language they may have been written. And it is also better not to touch without
ablutions the names of the holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.), the holy Imams (a.s.) and lady Fatima Zahra (s.a.).
However, there is no harm in touching without performing ablutions, the
translation of the holy Qur’an in any language.
How many verses, words and alphabets
are there in the Qur’an?
The Glorious Qur’an contains
6,236 verses, 77,934 words and 3,23670 alphabets.
The difference in the number of verses according to different accounts is due
to the fact that certain verses are split into smaller verses in some editions
of the Qur’an.
Is it necessary that all the
conditions which apply to prostration during Namaz should be fulfilled for
performing an obligatory prostration of the Holy Qur’an?
Only the place where a person performs obligatory prostrations of the holy Qur’an
should not be an usurped one. And on
the basis of obligatory precaution, the place where he’ places his forehead
should not be higher than four joined fingers from the place where the tips of
his toes rest and should place his forehead on things on which prostration is
in order. However, it is not
necessary that he should face the Qibla or should have performed ablutions or
the pre-requisites in the matter of the dress of a person offering prayers be
What is the correct translation of the
Qur’anic verse ‘Eh din as Siraat al-Mustaqeem”1: 6?
This is the saying of believers
on whose heart the light of divine guidance has shone.
The preceding verses show that he bears witness to Allah’s Unity, Mercy and
Justice. So how can a person who is
on Allah’s Path request Him to show or guide him “to” His path? People, who do
not know what “Siraat al-Mustaqeem” is, translate this verse wrongly. In “Maani al-Akhbaar”, Imam Sadiq (a.s.)
says: “Siraat al-Mustaqeem” is the path towards Allah’s knowledge and that is
two paths - ‘Siraat’ in the world and the other in the Hereafter. But the ‘Siraat’ in the world is the Imam whose
obedience is obligatory and (the Siraat) in the Hereafter is the bridge of
hell; one who doesn’t recognise the Imam in the world will tremble and be
destroyed in hell-fire.” As Allah says in the Holy Qur’an: “And for all are
degrees according to what they did...”
Also, “And Allah increases in guidance those who go aright”.
So everybody is not on the same level otherwise it would be meaningless for the
Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
to pray thus. The verse is a prayer
to Allah to continue to bless us with His Grace in future too. Hence the correct translation would be “Guide us ‘on’
the right path”. Even the Wahabi
translator Yusuf Ali, who translates it as “Show us the straightway”, writes in
his footnotes that: “If we translate by the English word “guide”, we shall have
to say: “Guide us to or in the Straight way”.
Obviously, both the sayings are not the same.
What are the meanings of “Waqf ba
Harkat” and “Wasl ba Sukun”?
The meaning of “Waqf ba Harkat”
is that we utter different strokes occurring at the end of a word and pause
between that word and the succeeding word.
For example, while saying Ar Rahmaanir Raheem we recite with stroke below Mim
of Ar-Rahim and thereafter allow a pause and then say Maaleke yawmid din. And the meaning of “Wasl ba Sukun” is that we do
not utter the different strokes of a word and join with the succeeding word. For example, while saying Ar Rahmaanir Raheem we
do not give stroke below Mim of Rahim and at once say Maaleke yawmid din. The obligatory precaution is that while offering
prayers we should not resort to “Waqf ba Harkat” and “Wasl ba Sukun”.
Is it sufficient to recite the
translation of the Qur’an for fulfilling a ‘Nazr’ (Vow) in which the intention
was to recite the Qur’an?
Reading the translation of the
Qur’an cannot suffice as recitation of the Arabic Qur’an unless, of course, you
had intended to read its translation while doing Nazr.
Who is the person referred to in the
verses, “...We would certainly have exalted him thereby, but he
clung to the earth and followed his low desire, so his parable is as the
parable of the dog; if you attack him he lolls out his tongue; and if you leave
him alone he lolls out his tongue; this is the parable of the people who reject
According to an authentic
narrative, the person referred to in the above-mentioned verse (7:176) was Bal’am
bin Baaur who knew the Greatest Name of Allah (Ism-e-A’zam) but due to his avid
transgression had it effaced from the memory.
Some scholars hold that it concerns Bal’am bin Abr, Bal’am bin Aamer or Umayyat
ibn Abasalt but they agree that he was a Bani-Israeli man.
What is the meaning of the word “Masaani”
in verse number 87 of Surah Al-Hijr (The Rock)?
We have it from Tahzib on the
authority of Mohammad bin Muslim that he asked Imam Sadiq (a.s.)
whether the seven verses of Masaani is Surah Al-Fateha (The Opening). Imam Sadiq (a.s.) replied in the affirmative.
What is the best thing for increasing
one’s economic status and attracting Allah’s ‘Barakat’ (blessings) in one’s
business and livelihood?
By reciting Surah al-Waqe’ah
every night and by reciting Isteghfar (Astaghferullaah Rabbi Wa Atoobo elayhe)
and Salawat as much as possible.
Also by taking out Khums and Zakat regularly and giving Sadaqa (charity)
According to Holy Qur’an, Allah told
the angels to bow down to Hazrat Adam (a.s.); everybody did except Iblis.
Was Iblis an angel or Jinn?
Here are 3 verses which provide
i. And when we said to the angels, “Bow
down to Adam”; so they bowed down except Iblis.
He was from the Jinns, and he broke the command of his Lord. (18:50)
ii. He created man from sounding clay
like earthen pottery, and created jinns from smokeless fire. (55: 14, 15)
iii. Said He, “What prevented you that
you did not bow down when I did command you?” Said (Shaitan), “I am
better than him; You created me of fire and You created him (Adam) of clay”.
verses clearly show that Iblis was not from amongst the angels he was a Jinn
who was created from fire.
why was he condemned for disobeying a command given to the angels? It was
because he was amongst the group of the angels who had been ordered to bow down
to Adam, and since he formed one of the members of the group, the order also
pertained to him as the third ayat clearly shows that he was ‘ordered’. If in a group there are, let us say, more men than
women (as in Ayat of Tat-hir), then the whole group is referred to in masculine
gender and the women are automatically included in it, even if the pronouns etc. are masculine.
This rule is called the rule of ‘Taghlib’ (Rule of Predominance). Likewise, in that group of angels there was only
one Jinn (Shaitan); therefore, the order covered the group collectively
including Satan. That is why he was
condemned by Allah for his disobedience.
Satan understood it perfectly. That
is why he did not argue that he had not prostrated because the order was
addressed, not to him, but to the angels.
Q458. What is the interpretation of KafHaYaAinSwad?
A. Such ayat are called ‘Muqatta’at’
(Separated letters), because they are recited one by one.
Their meaning is known only to Allah, His Prophet and the 12 Imams. If anybody tries to interpret them according to
his own notion he commits a great sin.
So far as the above-mentioned ‘Muqatta’at’ are concerned, there are two
interpretations which have been narrated from our Imams:
1. Each of the 5 letters stands for a
- Stands for Kafi (Charitable Giver or Self Sufficient)
- Stands for Hadi (Guide)
- Stands for Yad (Hand, i.e. Powerful)
- Stands for Alim (the All-Knowing)
- Stands for Sadiq (The True One).
2. According to another tradition Allah
ordered Gabriel to teach Nabi Zakariya the sacred names of the Holy Prophet and
his immediate Ahlul-Bait. When
Gabriel mentioned the first 4 names (Mohammad, Ali, Fatemah, Hasan) Zakariya
felt great joy. But with the mention
of the name of Husain, he was filled with grief and sorrow. When he asked Gabriel about this strange
phenomenon, the latter acquainted him with the heart-rending tragedy of Karbala. According to that Hadis, these 5 letters - symbols
were used to convey to Zakariya the sad tidings of Karbala:
- Stands for Karbala
- Stands for Halakat (Annihilation of the Holy family)
- Stands for Yazid
- Stands for Atash (Thirst) of Imam Husain and his companions.
- denotes their Sabr (patience)
Q459. Why does not the Holy Qur’an give strong
emphasis to support father-in-law and mother-in-law? Because a married women
will never be able to support her father and mother if her husband does not
A. A woman, married or unmarried, is
never expected to support any body.
She is to be supported by her father or her husband.
Q460. I listen to a tape recorder, radio or
television emitting the voice of a reciter of the Qur’an, reciting a verse
which demands prostration. Should I
Certainly not. You are not obliged to prostrate yourself except
when you hear it (the verse) from the reciter himself, not on his recorded tape.
I am 15 years old and have been raised
following Sunni interpretations of Islam without adhering to any particular
mazhab. I have done much research on
Shia interpretations of Islam and I find them to be much more valid than the
others. Therefore, I would like to
ask whether or not ‘bismillahir rahmanir raheem’ is part of every Surah, or
just Surahtul Fateha? Is it necessary to recite it before Surahtul Fatiha
during salah? Could you please explain this useful information from any hadis
(Sunni or Shia) or any scholar?
Shia scholars are virtually
unanimous in their view that the Bismillah (i.e. Bismillahir-Rahmanir-Raheem) is a part of every
Surah except Surah Taubah (Chapter 9).
As a rule of prayer, Shias must recite it for that reason and to intentionally
not recite it while it is known to be part of the Surah will invalidate the
prayer. Imam Ali (a.s.) was
asked: “Is Bismillahir-Rahmanir-Raheem a part of the opening of the book (i.e. Surah
Fateha)? He said: Yes. The Messenger
of Allah (s.a.w.a.)
recited it and counted it as a verse (of the Surah) and he says ‘the opening of
the Book is seven oft-repeated verses.”
Please can you tell me whether it is
allowed to recite Sure-Fateha for Ahl-e-Bait in a manner similar to the
Fatayhas which are recited for deceased Mo’menin / Mo’menat, i.e. after
reciting Sur-e-Fateha for ordinary Mo’menin / Mo’menat we say ‘O Allah please
give the sawab / hadiya of this Fateha to X son of Y’.
Please note the intention after the recitation, bearing in mind that the
Ahl-e-Bait are not in need of our Fatehas, etc.
I have heard of situations where the Sur-e-Fatayha is recited for nazar and
people say, for example, ‘O Abul Fadlil Abbas please accept our nazar’.
Reciting Surah of Fateha,
offering the whole recitation of the Holy Qur’an, praying 2 or more Rakaats for
is permissible. Your Niyyat for the
purpose will suffice, but it has to be Qurbatan Elallah.
The Ahlulbait (a.s.) pray for us in return.
Nazar can only be made in the name of Allah.
It is a covenant with Allah Almighty.
My question is regarding aamals. There are some aamals in which you need to recite
such-and-such dua / Surah of the Qur’an.
My question is whether you must recite that dua or Surah that many times or
will reciting it once suffice? As I do taqlid of Ayatullah Seestani, I would
appreciate a reply with respect to his resalah.
In the Aamal which guide us to
recite a certain Zikr, Dua’ or Surah for a given number of times, then it should
be followed exactly. In that there
is a sacred secret which we may not be able to comprehend.
At the same time, Aamal are Sunnat (recommended).
But when we voluntarily wish to perform them, the guidelines ought to be
Do Shias adopt ‘Taqayya’
(dissimulation) when denying ‘Tahreef’ in the Holy Qur’an?
The Shias believe that there has been no ‘Tahreef’ in the Holy Qur’an and the
text of the Qur’an is pure and has not been tampered with.
What is Al-Hadees Al-Qudsi?
The Hadees Al-Qudsi is revealed
as meanings from Allah Ta’ala to the heart of the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) who
expressed it in his own wordings. Hadees
an-Nabawi is guidance from Allah Ta’ala for all people and are the sayings of
the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) as far as the meanings and words, though
everything said by the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and the infallibles reflect the teachings of
‘Waseela’ i.e. asking Allah (s.w.t.)
though the Waseela of the 14 Masoomeens (a.s.) and other highly pious people – is this mentioned
in the Holy Qur’an?
Waseela is mentioned in the Holy
Qur’an in Surah No. 5 (Al Ma’ida)
Verse No. 35, “O you who believe!
Fear Allah, and seek for him the waseela”
also in Surah No. 17 (Al Esraa’)
Verse No. 57, “those who pray,
seeking a waseela to their Lord.”
According to Quran how many Khalifas
are declared by Allah (s.w.t.). Please quote references from the Holy Qur’an.
A. There are 12 mentions of ‘Khalifa’
and its related meanings in the Holy Qur’an:
1. Surah Baqara, verse 30.
2. Surah Saad, verse 26.
3. Surah al-An’aam, verse 65.
4. Surah Younus, verse 14.
Surah Younus, verse 73.
Surah Faatir, verse 39.
Surah al-A’raaf, verse 69.
Surah al-A’raaf, verse 74.
Surah an-Naml, verse 62.
Surah al-Noor, verse 55.
Surah Hood, verse 57.
Surah al-A’raaf, verse 129.
is also an indication that the real successors of the Holy Prophet (khalifa)
are 12, as it was mentioned in many prophetic traditions.
There are also 12 mentions to ‘imam’ and its related meaning in the Holy Qur’an.
Q468. I wanted to know the dua for the sajdah
that comes across during reading The Holy Qur’an.
A. Any zikr can be recited in the sajda
of reciting the Holy Qur’an or listening to it if the verse recited or listened
to is a wajib (obligatory) sajda or a mustahab sajda verse. ‘Subhaanallaah’ or ‘Alhamdolillaah’ or ‘Allaho-akbar’
etc. can be recited.
Q469. Was the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) ever
affected by witchcraft? If not, then for what purposes were Surah al-Falaq and
Surah an-Naas revealed? If he was affected by witchcraft, then was the effect
physical or spiritual?
A. The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) was
never affected by any kind of witchcraft in spite of the attempts made by the
enemies, for he was protected by Allah (s.w.t.). Indeed any Mo’min is protected by Allah (s.w.t.) from witchcraft if he really seeks Allah’s
protection. Surah al-Falaq and Surah
an-Nas are not saying that the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) was a victim, but are, in fact, teaching all
Muslims to seek Allah’s refuge and protection from the much harm mentioned in
these two Surahs.
arises from evil, whereas the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and the real servants of Allah (s.w.t.) are far away from being affected by the work of
evil. Allah (s.w.t.) says
in the Holy Quran to Shaitan “Surely, you will have no effect on my
I have heard before that some of the
Shias say that there is a Qur’an called “Quran Fatimah” where there were some
verses that deliver the message for all Muslims about the caliphate of
Ahlul-Bayt. Is that true?
There is no Qur’an but one Holy
Qur’an, which is available in the hands of all Muslims.
The book of Fatemah (s.a.) is not Qur’an, but a book of knowledge written by
her taken from her father the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.).
Holy Qur’an mentions the importance of the Ahlul-Bayt (a.s.) in many verses.
Even Sunni scholars like al-Shafi’ee said that at least 300 verses in the Holy
Qur’an relate to the attributes of Imam Ali (a.s.) and the Ahlul-Bayt (a.s.).
A person while reciting the Holy Qur’an
reads the Ayah of Sajdah (prostration).
He does not perform the Sajdah forthwith intending to perform it after the
completion of the Parah (a part of Quran).
However when he completes the Parah he forgets about it.
Can he perform the Sajdah later when he remembers about it?
The Wajib (obligatory) Sajdah on
recitation or on hearing one of the four verses of Wajib (obligatory) Sujood in
the Holy Qur’an, must be performed immediately without any delay. It cannot be postponed till the end of the Parah
or Surah or anything else. Not
performing it immediately will be a sin.
Such Wajib (obligatory) Sajdah has no Qaza, so there is no point in performing
Please give us logical and scientific
proofs (not from Qur’an or ahadees) that the Holy Qur’an is the holy book of
The Holy Qur’an is an
everlasting miracle, challenging every generation and proving that it can never
be anything but the word of Allah (s.w.t.). The Holy Qur’an threw an open challenge to all
those who doubt it and claim that it is not from Allah (s.w.t.) to
bring any book like it, or even any ten chapters like it’s 114 chapters, or
even any one chapter like it’s chapters.
In spite of all the efforts of all the enemies of Islam, nobody could come out
with anything at all like Qur’an.
This itself should be enough to prove that the Holy Qur’an is not from any
human source, and it is from Allah (s.w.t.).
scientific miracles of the Holy Qur’an are countless, but we may take just few
of them as examples:-
1. In Surah Maryam, Verse 25, Allah (s.w.t.) ordered Maryam (Mary) (a.s.) when she was during labour to shake the trunk of
the palm tree so that fresh dates may fall on her.
He also ordered her to eat from the fresh dates and drink.
Medical scientists have recently found that a woman in labour needs a vital
food constituent to have an easy delivery.
That constituent is found in many foods, but is best found in fresh dates among
all foods in the world.
2. The movement of the earth is clearly
mentioned in the Holy Qur’an (Surah 27, Verse 88).
It should be borne in mind that most people of that time including those in Europe till even a thousand years after the advent of
Islam believed that earth was stationary.
In Surah 20, Verse 30, Allah (s.w.t.) says “Don’t disbelievers see that the skies
and earth were attached, then we detached them?” This Qur’anic fact was
confirmed by scientists after advances in scientific research and it is now
accepted by scientists. The
discovery of the Big Bang which was announced a few years back confirms this
The development of the embryo
is mentioned in a miraculous way in Surah Al-Mo’minoon, verses 12, 13 and 14
giving the most accurate details which were recently confirmed by scientists. A Canadian Professor announced after 15 years of
research in embryology that he found in his research results as stated in Qur’an
which was revealed 1400 years ago.
He confirmed that the Holy Qur’an can never be from any human being and it is
definitely from God.
In Al-Nahl (Honey Bee), Verse
69, Allah (s.w.t.) states that honey has cure for people. This Quranic fact is confirmed in hundreds of
scientific researches on honey.
Today, there are scientific research centres in USA specialising in
research on honey and its benefits to cure every illness.
numerical miracles of the Holy Qur’an are also countless, but we again take
just few as examples:-
The mention of ‘Hour’ appears
in the Qur’an just 24 times, and that of ‘Month’ appears 12 times, while that
of ‘day’ appears Qur’an 365 times.
The mention of ‘man’ appears in
the Qur’an 24 times, exactly as much as the mention of ‘woman’ which is also 24
The mention of ‘Aql’ which
means intellect appears 49 times in the Quran, as much as the mention of ‘Noor’
which means light which is 49 times.
‘People’ are mentioned 368
times, as much as ‘messengers’ which is again 368 times.
This means that whenever there were people, there was a messenger and a message
from Allah to guide them.
‘Tongue’ is mentioned in the
Quran 29 times, just as ‘talking’ is also mentioned 29 times.
‘Astray goers’ appear 17 times,
just as ‘Dead persons’ appear 17 times, because going astray is the real death.
7. ‘Difficulty’ appears 114 times, just
as ‘Patience’ which appears 114 times.
‘Life’ appears 145 times, while
‘Death’ appears 145 times too.
‘Dunia’ which means this life
appears 115 times, and ‘Aakhirah’ which means the Hereafter appears 115 times.
‘Sins’ is mentioned 180 times,
just as ‘Good deeds’ which too appears 180 times.
‘Angels’ are mentioned 88 times,
while ‘devils’ are mentioned 88 times too.
‘Imam’ appears 12 times, ‘successor’
appears 12 times, ‘The Best Chosen by Allah’ (Al-Mostafawn) appear 12
times, ‘Most pious’ (Al-Abraar) appear 12 times, and ‘Shia’ too appear
12 times. You find ‘Firqa’ which
means a division appears 72 times in the Quran which is the number of divisions
in Muslim Ummah that are away from the right path of Islam as the total sects
according to the Hadees is 73.
‘Adam’ is named 25 times and ‘Easa’
(Jesus) is named 25 times. The Holy
Qur’an says that “The example of Easa with Allah is like the example of
‘Land’ is mentioned 12 times
whereas ‘Sea’ is mentioned 41 times in the Quran, which is the exact ratio of
land and sea on the globe which was discovered just recently after the
advancement of science and space photography of the globe.
I should state with full confidence that every word in Quran has miracles. We may be able to discover some of its facts
according to the sophistication of our thought and advancement of our
knowledge, no matter which language we understand, because Quran is the
everlasting miracle for all worlds, all times.
The more we think and conduct research, the more we discover, though Quranic
miracles are definitely endless.
Q473. Regarding Fateha for the deceased, I
learned that one should recite Salawat 14 or 3 times then one Surah Al-hamd and
then three times Surah Tawheed and then again Salawat 14 or 3 times, but some
times people do not recite Salawat.
So, please clarify this by giving me the details of correct procedure, what
should be recited and what is optional.
Are there any different methods if one recites for the benefit of the Holy
and for the general people.
A. Reciting Surah Fateha, which is Surah
Al-Hamd is a source of great Sawab (reward).
If we gift its reward to anybody, we will earn more Sawab.
Reciting Salawat is another source of Sawab.
Reciting Surah Tawheed is also a source of Sawab.
Reciting all of them will increase the Sawab.
is no difference in reciting the Holy Quran irrespective of whom you want to
gift the Sawab to. No doubt, when
you gift to the Holy Masoomeen (a.s.), the Sawab will be more.
is mentioned in Islamic resources that reciting Surah Al-Hamd once, followed by
Surah Tawheed thrice, and gifting the Sawab to the deceased, will be a source
of great Sawab, both for the one who gifts and the one to whom it is gifted. It is also mentioned that the deceased person will
know the name of the person who gifted him this gift.
short, any recitation of Surah Al-Hamd, Surah Tawheed, Salawaat, or any Surah
or any Tasbeeh will be a source of Sawab for the person who recites and to whom
it was gifted.
Q474. Is the present Qur’an complete? I ask this
because some people say that the ayats (verses) which were in the praise of the
Ahul Bayt (a.s) are not included in
the present Qur’an but Imam Ali ibn Abi Talib (a.s)
had written the complete Qur’an which is in existence with the Imam of Our Time
[Twelfth Imam] (a.s)? Please explain.
A. The Holy Qur’an is complete and
intact. It is the same Qur’an that
has been in existence right from the beginning of Islam till today. Nobody can add or omit or change anything in Holy
Qur’an. Allah (s.w.t) has
promised to preserve Qur’an intact.
Q475. Some people use bad language for the
enemies of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) what should be the correct, verbal expression of
expressing enmity with the enemies of Allah, of His Prophet and of Ahlul Bayt
The enemies deserve the
strongest kind of condemnation.
Tabarra which is dissociating one self from evil-doers is mentioned in the Holy
Quran, thus: “Those who hide the proof and guidance which we revealed, after
We made it clear in the Book. Such
are accursed by Allah and accursed of those who have the power to curse”.
to avoid disharmony and conflicts, Tabarra should not be expressed before the
followers of these evildoers.
is very useful for warding-off hardships.
Ulema are known to do nazr (i.e. vow) to curse 100 times if their wishes are
granted. But in any case, this
cursing should not take the form of abusive or bad language, which is not
befitting a Mu’min’s character.
Can Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.)’s
charity on his behalf be given to Sayyeds?
Yes, it can be given to Sayyeds. Non-Sayyeds cannot give Fitrah or obligatory zakat
or obligatory Sadaqa to Sayyeds.
Where is the severed head of Imam
It is a well-established fact
that the 4th Imam, Hazrat Zainul Abedeen (a.s.) while returning to Madina from Syria brought the holy head of Imam Husain (a.s.) with
himself and buried it at Karbala.
A Sunni says that Hazrat Ali (a.s.) is “Maula”
of Muslims but his status is fourth in the line of caliphate. What should one tell him?
This claim is baseless and wrong. Let them bring just one authentic hadees in which Holy
addressed the first three caliphs as ‘Maula’.
Incidentally none of the 3 caliphs claimed to be the Maula of the Mu’mineen.
has been clearly mentioned in books written by Sunni scholars that the second
caliph congratulated Hazrat Ali (a.s.) after the event of Ghadeer-e-Khum, saying, “Greetings
be to you, O son of Abu Taleb! You have become my Maula (Master) and the Maula
of all Mu’mineen and Mu’minaat.”
Is it necessary to point with one’s
index-finger while offering salutations to the Fourteen Infallibles (a.s.)?
It is not necessary but since
our Imams (a.s.)
used to offer salutations (Ziyarat) in this manner, we also emulate this
gesture. One should not point in any
direction while addressing Imam-e-Zamaan (a.s.).
After death, in the grave, during questions
and answers, will Hazrat Ali (a.s.) be present or our 12th Imam (a.s.) or
both or all Imams. In order to help
the Mo’mineen support your answer with Ahaadees?
Many Ahadees are available which
say, that every person who dies will see Hazrat Ali (a.s.). A
famous hadees of Hazrat Ali (a.s.). “When
any body dies he will definitely see me whether he is a mo’min or a hypocrite. The Mo’min will see the good results of his deeds
and the other will see the bad results of his Nifaq”
Imams also come to help Mo’min.
Details of this can be found in many Ahadees.
Wahabis question the propriety of
decorating the Shrines of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) when poverty stalks many of Muslim land?
Gold is the ornament of the
slave of the slave of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.). The
Holy shrines are decorated with gold as a mark of respect for what they
symbolize and nothing more.
think the poverty of Muslims will be removed by the gold which decorates some
of the Shrines? If Wahabis are truly pained by the fate of the poor, they
should tell their rich rulers to give Khums and Zakat of their wealth because
if they were to give Khums of even one year’s saying, no Muslim will remain
poor. Actually, what prompts their
reaction is not concern for human suffering but their deep-seated animosity
towards Ahlul Bayt (a.s.)
It is accepted by us that Allah never
left any nation any time without a guide.
Can you please enlighten us for the period between Eesa (a.s.) and
Prophet Mohammed (s.a.w.a.) because the ghaibat of Hazrat Eesa (a.s.) is
different in a way from the ghaibat of Imam Zamaan (a.s.).
The period between Hazrat Eesa
and Prophet Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) as usual was not left without a guide. Either a prophet such as Khalid bin Hanzala or
Ausiyah (successors) existed and father of Abu Talib, Janab-e-Abdul Muttalib
according to Riwayat was also successor of Hazrat Eesa (a.s.). At no
time people were left without guidance.
As regards the difference between ghaibat of Hazrat Eesa (a.s.) and
Imam-e-Zamaan (a.s.), it can be understood very simply that Hazrat
ascended and was raised to the heaven and at the moment does not reside on the
earth whereas Imam-e-Zamaan (a.s.) is presently residing in this very world but
usually cannot be seen or recognized by people at large.
Imam Hasan (a.s.) opted for peace while Imam Husain (a.s.)
stood up to fight. Why this
Both Imam Hasan (a.s.) and
Imam Husain (a.s.) are Imams and infallible.
Their different stands were basically for the safe guarding of the religion of
Islam. The conditions during their
life time were different and demanded different approach so there is no
discrepancy as such.
Hazrat Sulayman (a.s.)
prays to Allah Ta’ala by saying: “Grant me a dominion such as shall not befit
any one after me.”
Does it mean that Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.)’s kingdom will be inferior to that of Hazrat
On the Contrary, Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.)’s
kingdom will encompass the whole world whereas Hazrat Sulayman (a.s.)’s
kingdom was confined to one continent only.
During the reign of Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.) there will be no Pakistan,
India, America or Saudi Arabia in existence. The whole world will be one big Islamic country.
How do we refute the allegations that
the book “Nahj al-Balaghah” is not completely the utterances of Imam Ali ibn
Abi Talib (a.s.)?
No scholar of any denomination
questioned the genuineness of Nahj al-Balaghah? For more than two centuries
until Ibn Khallikan (d. 681/1282)
raised doubts about its attribution of Hazrat Ali (a.s.) without referring to any author or source. Later Sunni Scholars were content to repeat Ibn
Khallikan’s conjecture without bothering to substantiate it, which in the
course of time, continues to be blindly parroted as a matter of fact. The allegation made is that it has been, to some
extent, composed by either of the two brothers, Sayyed Razi or Sayyed Murtaza. Firstly a contemporary, namely Najaashi (d. 450/ 1058), mentions it among the compiled works
of Sayyed Razi. And Shaykh Tusi (d. 460/1067-68) who was a student of Sayyed Murtaza
does not mention Nahj al-Balaghah as his teacher’s work.
Secondly, Sayyed Razi has referred to Nahj al-Balaghah as his own compilation
of Hazrat Ali (a.s.)’s sermons, letters and sayings in two of his
books, namely, “Haqaiq al-Tanzil” and “Majaazaat al-At’har”. Thirdly the Indian Sunni scholar, Imtiyaz Ali Khan
Arshi refers to the earlier sources of 106 sermons, 37 letters and 79 sayings
of Hazrat Ali (a.s.), including that of the disputed sermon called “Al-Shiqshiqiyya”
which is critical of the first two Caliphs.
Similarly, Kazim Muhammadi and Muhammad Dashti have prepared a comprehensive
bibliography with a detailed item-by-item list of sources in “AI-Mu’jam
al-Mufahras li Alfaaz Nahj al-Balaghah”.
Lastly, the Sunni scholar, Safadi in his “Waafi bil Wafayaaf” (vol. 2, p.
375), writes: “People are of the view that “Nahj al-Balaghah’ is not Sayyed
Is there any truth in the story that
the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) once forgot to say “lnsha-Allah” (If Allah Wills)
while promising something, for which reason, revelation was withheld for forty
Forgetting is a weakness,
especially for a prophet, which can be exploited by his enemies to discredit
his whole message. The story
surrounds the revelation of the verse: “And do not say of anything; surely I
will do it tomorrow unless Allah pleases.”
Firstly, Qur’anic verses were revealed solely to the Prophet (s.a.w.a.),
when in fact, the message was addressed to the people in general. Nobody believes that the following verses were
personally directed to the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) himself: “Abundance diverts you, until you
come to the graves.”
or the verse, “It is most hateful to Allah that you should say that which
you do not do.”
Secondly, the Qur’an explicitly declares about the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) that
“...most surely you conform to sublime morality”,
that he “...does not err, nor does he go astray, nor does he
speak to of desire”
and “We will make you recite so you shall not forget”.
So it is illogical that Allah should make him forget and deprive him of the
blessing of revelation. Thirdly,
retention of revelation did occur in the course of his prophetic mission for
two reasons: (i) as a test of the believer’s faith and (ii) as a proof that the
revelation is not a personal concoction.
To infer that the revelation of the verse (18:22-23) after a gap of time means
mischievous fabrication. Fourthly,
is it possible that prophets Musa (a.s.) and Shuayb (a.s.) should remember to utter the phrase “If Allah
pleases” in verses 18: 69 and 37: 102 respectively but the greatest of all
prophets, should forget to pronounce the same.
Even Allamah Tabatabai, who wrote that “...a man
who has knowledge of God’s status and has submitted to God should never consider
himself independent in any event or work and should not believe himself to be
needless of God”, (thus, remembering to say “If Allah Wills” while
speaking about his future course of action), himself unthinkingly quoted the
story that the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) underwent such a lapse.” So we conclude that this
imputation has been falsely created to discredit the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
make the caliphs comparable to him, which some Shi’ite scholars have blindly
copied from Sunni sources.
Which is the oldest existing book
written by a Sunni scholar about Imam Mahdi (a.t.f.s.)?
In all probability it is the
book called “Fitan Wa Malahem” written by the Sunni scholar Hafez Noaim bin
Hammad (died in 227 A.H.), who was the teacher of Bukhari and others. Three copies exist in India,
Syria and England respectively.
How does one refute the claim by some
non-Shia scholars that the fort of Khaybar was conquered by someone other than
Amir al-Mu’menin Hazrat Ali (a.s.)?
The fact that Amir al-Mu’menin
Hazrat Ali (a.s.) conquered the fort of Khaybar is so well-known
that only an ignoramus can deny it.
For instance, Sa’d Waqqas has been quoted by Sahih Muslim (Vol. 7, p.
120) to be desirous of possessing at least one of the three virtues of Hazrat
and one of them pertains to his victory at Khaybar.
How does one reconcile the narrative
attributed to Imam Sadiq (a.s.) in section eleven of “Hilyatul Muttaqeen” wherein
he is quoted to have said: “Do not wear black shoes” while another narrative states
that the best colour of shoes in one’s home-town is black?
The abominableness of black
shoes and black dress, apart from the amamah (turban), rida (outer robe) and
socks (except while mourning the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) or their followers) is well-known and accepted. The wording of the latter statement indicates that
it was addressed to someone residing in a town dominated by bigoted enemies of
Shias, who could have marked him by his avoidance of black shoes and this could
have harmed him.
How do you explain the saying of Imam
“Make your heart bright and wear whatever you want”?
The saying of Imam Sadiq (a.s.): “Make
your heart bright and wear whatever you want” emphasizes the pre-eminence
of an illuminated heart (reality) over an attractive facade (appearance) and
the predominance of intention over action.
It does not, however, mean that people should be indiscriminate about what they
wear because Islam has well-established prohibitions regarding what can be worn. In any case, an enlightened soul will not
dishonour his body by means of inappropriate attire.
Did our Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.)
deliver his message to the Jinnis? If the answer is yes, how did he do this,
while the Jinnis are not usually seen by man? And how is Islam maintained among
the Jinnis now?
Yes, our Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.)
preached among the Jinns, and this fact is clearly described in the Surah ‘Al
Jinn’. The Jinns are not seen by
men, as you have said, usually. But
they may make themselves visible if they want.
And the power of the eyes of the Holy Prophet was such that he could, and did,
see the angels (who also are not seen usually by men); therefore, it is not a
to the maintenance of Islam among them now, it is described in our books, that
they have their own scholars and preachers, as the human beings do. And it has been hinted in many traditions of our
Imams that the Jinni Muslims were not misled by those who contrived to mislead
the mankind; they are on right path.
Did the Holy Prophet pay Mahr for his
first wife, Hazrat Khadija? How much?
There are various traditions
about the ‘Mahr’ of Hazrat Khadija: 500 Dirhams or 400 Misqal gold or 20 camels.
When we mention the apostle’s name,
Mohammed, we say (s.a.w.a.) Why? What does it mean?
(s.a.w.a.) after the name of the Holy Prophet is the
abbreviation of “Sallallaaho alayhe wa aalehi wa sallam”.
It means, “May Allah Bestow His Mercy, Grace and Peace upon him (Mohammed) and
Muslims say it in compliance with the command of Allah: “Verily, Allah
Bestows His Grace upon the Prophet and His angels pray for him; O you who
believe send your blessings on him and salute him as is the proper way.”
the addition of ‘wa Aalehi’ (and upon his progeny) is in accordance with the
command of the Holy Prophet who said: “Do not send on me an incomplete salawaat”. The companions asked: “What is the incomplete
salawaat, O Messenger of Allah!” The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) said: “It is incomplete to say ‘O Allah Bless
Mohammed” and then to stop. Nay,
you should say: “O Allah Bless Mohammed and his Progeny.”
How many wives did Prophet Mohammed (s.a.w.a.) have
besides Khadija? What are their names, if known?
The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) did
not marry any other woman in the life time of Khadija.
After her death, he married 12 wives, nine of whom were alive at the time of
his death. Their names were Sauda,
Aaisha, Umme Salma, Zainab binte Jahash, Safiyya, Hafsa, Maimuna, Zainab Ummul
Masakin and Umme Habiba.
Does Imam Mahdi (a.s.)
appear and disappear like a magical person or is it the fault of people’s eyes?
Imam Mahdi (a.s.) is
living on this very earth. Wherever
the cause of Islam demands, he reaches there.
Sometimes people see the Imam-e-Zaman (a.s.) but do not recognize him.
Very few people meet him and recognize him also.
It is Allah’s Glory that when He wants them to see the Imam, they meet him.
Where should one go to meet
No place in particular in the Ghaibat-e-Kubra. When Allah is pleased with someone, He will make
it possible for the person to meet Imam-e-Zamaan (a.s.). The
person need not go to search for the Imam (a.s.). What
he needs is piety and sincere obedience to Allah’s Commands. This meeting can take place in one’s dream or it
could be an actual meeting.
Recently on a Friday morning I was
near a Sunni mosque early in the morning and I heard they were reciting ‘Laa
Hawla walaa Quwwata illaa Billaahil A’liyyil Azeem’.
I was a bit surprised because there was the name of Imam Ali (a.s.) in
the Dua. Please correct me if I am
It is mustahab among all Muslims
to say ‘Laa Hawla walaa Quwwata illaa Billaahil A’liyyil Azeem’, on hearing in
the azaan, hayya alas salaah, hayya alal falaah, hayya ala khairil amal. There is no surprise at all, since al-Ali is one
of names of Allah (s.w.t.)
which means the High. Imam Ali (a.s.) is
Ali, not al-Ali. He is the best
servant of Allah (s.w.t.)
after the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.).
Should we not be proud of the bravery
and resolve of Imam Husain (a.s.) and his followers rather than mourn over their
trials and martyrdom? Crying looks like a cowardly act.
Should we not be focusing on what we can learn from the incident like never
compromising on the principles of Islam and giving importance to the shariah?
This is a baseless claim, i.e. to be
proud of the tragedy of Karbala
and to stop mourning. The Prophet
had cried for long years till he lost his eyesight, when he lost his son [Yusuf
(a.s..)] though he was aware of the fact that Yusuf was
not killed. The human feeling of
mourning any tragedy is a fact which cannot be denied.
Why did the Holy Prophet Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) call Muslim women in Madina to cry at the
martyrdom of his uncle Hamza after he was martyred in the battle of Uhod? Did
he call people to be proud of Hamza’s bravery and not to mourn his martyrdom?
for Imam Husain (a.s.) is an expression of one of the noblest of human
feelings. It is a sign of real iman
(faith) and a sign of faithfulness to the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and his Progeny the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.). Those who do not mourn this tragedy knowing that
it had happened have no real love for the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.).
for Imam Husain (a.s.) leads to proximity to the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
the Ahlul bayt (a.s.) who are the real leaders and guides to the Truth
of Islam. This is the way of
following the Shariah. Millions of
people were attracted to Islam through their noble sentiments for Imam Husain
(a.s.). Millions of Muslims today do not attend Masjids on
a regular basis, but attend mourning sessions (Majalis) and weep and cry at the
tragedy of Karbala. This great tragedy is the strongest link between
them and Islamic values. Their
participation in the Majalis increases their knowledge about Islam and
encourages them to implement the Shariah in their daily lives.
How many children did the Holy Prophet
The Holy Prophet Mohammed (s.a.w.a.) had
one daughter, Sayyedah Fatima (s.a.) and sons who died during childhood. Their names were - Ibrahim, al-Taahir, al-Qaasim -
as is mentioned in some books.
Sunnis believe that the Mahdi (a.s.) isn’t
born yet. Is the Mahdi (a.s.) born
and alive somewhere and will emerge when Allah wills? What are the bases for
this belief? Will Isa (Jesus) (a.s.) appear at the same time as the Mahdi (a.s.)?
What happens in their time and after it?
The Imam al-Mahdi (a.s.) was
born on the 15th of Sha’ban 255 A.H. in the city of Samarra’
in Iraq. He is the only son of Imam Hasan ibn Ali al-Askari
who was the Eleventh Imam from the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.). The
Imam al-Mahdi (a.s.) is mentioned in hundreds of ahadees narrated in
Sunni and Shia books.
Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and
the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) informed Muslims that the Imam al-Mahdi (a.s.) will
be the ninth descendent of Imam Husain (a.s.) which means the son of Imam Hasan ibn Ali
al-Askari (a.s.). All the followers of the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.)
believe in the Imam al-Mahdi who was born on the 15 Sha’ban 255 A.H. in
Samarra’, Iraq, and believe in his occultation which was in the interest of the
religion and human beings, according to the orders of Allah (s.w.t.), the Absolute Wise.
Sunni scholars admit that Imam al-Mahdi (a.s.) was born, and as many other Sunnis claim that he
will be born at the end of time. A
number of leading Sunni scholars who admitted that Imam al-Mahdi (a.s.) was
born in 255 A.H. in Samarra, and that he is the son of Imam Hasan
ibn Ali al-Askari (a.s,) were
mentioned in a book called ‘Defending Al-Kafi’, by Zaamer al-Ameedi who
mentioned One Hundred and Twenty-eight prominent Sunni scholars. These are just a few examples:
in ‘Mafaateeh Al-Oloom’, p.32.
ibn Salama Al-Shafi’ee as in ‘Tazkirat Al-Khawaas’ by Sib ibn Al-Jawzi, p.360.
ibn Al-Jawzi in ‘Tazkirat Al-Khawaas’, p.363.
Al-Shafi’ee in ‘Kifayat Al-Taalib’, Last page.
Khillikan in ‘Wafayaat Al-A’yaan’.
ibn Abdullah Al-Bukhari in ‘Sirril Silsilal Alawiyyah’, p.
in ‘Al-Hidaya Al-Kubra’, p. 353.
Al-Hamawi in ‘Faraa’id Al-Sibtayn’, 2: 337.
Al-Sabbagh Al-Maaliki in ‘Al-Fosool Al-Muhimma’, p.
Hajar Al- Haytami Al-Shafi’ee in ‘Al-Sawa’eq Al-Mohriqa’.
3rd Edition. p.
Al-Emaad Al-Hanbali in ‘Shazarat Al-Zahab’, 2: 148 in the events of year 260
Al-Shafi’ee in ‘Al-Ithaaf’, p. 68.
Q501. If one’s clothes are stained with blood and
one cannot change it, to avoid the Namaz from getting postponed, what should
A. If the area of the blood-stain is
more than one’s thumb-print, it is not permissible to offer Namaz wearing such
clothes. Even if the blood is
splattered in such a manner that collectively it is more than the thumbprint,
offering Namaz with such clothes is not valid.
If a change in to clean clothing is not possible without making the Namaz Qaza,
the person should remove his shirt if it is stained.
It is sufficient to have clean clothes which cover the private parts during prayers. It is Ehtiyat for a male to cover ones body from
the navel to the knees.
Q502. Is there any way of purifying Najis
A. If one is sure that the milk is
Najis, it cannot be made Paak, (Purified) at all.
Even if sweets or other deserts are prepared from Najis milk, it still remains
Najis. Also, Najis milk cannot be
made Paak by boiling it.
Q503. What should one believe when a person
doubts whether the water in our building’s water-tank is ‘Kur’ or not?
A. If the original status of water is ‘Kur’,
and afterwards one doubts whether it is still ‘Kur’ or not, it can be
considered as ‘Kur’.
Q504. Can a person have a bath with the intention
A. One can combine many intentions while
having one Ghusl (bath).
Q505. Is it enough to wash a saucer with soap,
which was licked by a dog?
A. No, it is not enough. Even if it is washed a hundred times with soap, it
will not be considered clean. It is
necessary to rub the entire saucer with mud (dry or wet) before washing it once
with running or ‘kur’ water or twice if the water is less than a ‘kur’.
Q506. Is it necessary for a person to be clean
before having an obligatory or a recommended ghusl (i.e. bath)?
A. The whole body need not be clean
before taking an obligatory or a recommended bath.
If a part of the body is najis (i.e. unclean); when it comes to that part it should be
first made clean before continuing with the intended ghusl (bath).
Q507. Is it necessary for the host to inform the
guests if the food which is served or the prayer carpet is Najis?
A. It is incumbent for the host to
inform his guests about the ‘Najasat’ in his food or prayer-carpet. A Muslim neither eats nor gives others to eat
unclean (Najis) food.
Q508. Can one perform Ghusl (bath) Janabat while
taking shower bath?
Yes one can! There is no harm at
all. But it will be
I am learning swimming in a swimming
pool where non-Muslims also come for swimming? Is it obligatory to take Ghusl
(bath) after swimming?
Usually swimming pool consists of many “Kur” volume of water, and even if
non-Muslims go in the water it remains paak.
There is no need for you to take “Ghusl (bath)”.
Ghusl (bath) is something quite different.
Any part of the body when Najis has to be made “Paak”.
For Information only: - One Kur is approximately 384 Litres volume hence this
volume and above keeps the water from becoming najis.
Q510. Is it permissible to use Najis Milk or oil
for massaging the body?
It is permissible to use them on
condition that the person should wash them off before offering Namaz.
Would butter made from Najis milk be
permitted for eating?
A. Whatever that is made from Najis milk
is not lawful for eating. It is of
no consequence whether the Najis milk is boiled or processed mechanically or
collected upto the amount of Kur water or whether the product made from Najis
milk comes packed or unpacked.
However, if you don’t know that it is ‘Paak’ (clean), you may consider it as
paak and use it because originally the milk is clean.
Q512. Is it obligatory for a 11 years old boy to
take ritual bath after touching a corpse?
becomes obligatory for a person who touches a corpse, after the body has become
cold and before it has been given the ritual bath.
It is obligatory on a boy who has attained 15 years of age and on a girl who
has attained 9 years of age or when both have become mature before this age
limit. The signs of maturity for boy
are growth of hard hair around the genital organs or discharge of semen.
Q513. Is it permissible to avoid taking an
obligatory bath mainly because of the coldness of water?
A. The obligatory bath cannot be avoided
due to the coldness of water.
Tayammum can only be resorted to in sickness which will be aggravated by the
bath, or lack of sufficient time to take bath and offer the prayers on time, or
because of lack of water, or when only ‘najis’ (unclean) water is available.
Can a person dry himself after
urinating with paper, cloth or stone and offer namaz in that state?
The person does not become clean.
Use of water is necessary for cleaning the place of urination. Temporarily, he can use it to dry to avoid, the
spread of Najasat (Uncleanness) in the absence of water, but before Namaz he
should use water if it is available.
If it is not possible to find water and the time of prayer is passing, he will
offer Namaz in that state. It is
Satanic misguidance to postpone Namaz because of uncleanliness. Namaz cannot be abandoned at any cost.
one touch the names of people which resemble that of the Ma’soomeen (a.s.)
without having Wuzu?
A. According to precaution, names
resembling that of the Ma’soomeen (a.s.) should not be touched without having Wuzu. If, for instance, the names are Ghulam Ali and
Shabeehul Hasan, one can touch Ghulam and Shabeehul without having Wuzu but not
Ali and Hasan. And if the names
belonging to people have not been inspired by Ma’soomeen (a.s.),
even though they resemble their names, one can touch them without Wuzu.
Q516. Can one do Wuzu in the state of janabat?
A. If it is not possible to do ghusl
(bath) immediately, one performs Wuzu for earning Allah’s pleasure. Basically this Wuzu is done for eating, drinking
or sleeping purpose and namaz cannot be performed with this Wuzu.
Q517. It is not necessary to touch the toes on
bare ground while prostrating in Namaz.
So why can’t a person wear shoes in Namaz when he is permitted to wear socks
and stand on a covered ground?
A. There are shoes whose front portions
are not covered, allowing the big toes to touch the floor, which can be worn
during Namaz. Other than this, it is
not permissible to wear other types of shoes during Namaz.
One probable reason could be that removing footwear is considered to be a sign
of humility, which is one of the main essences of submission before one’s
Creator, Nourisher and Sustainer.
Q518. Is Ghusl-e-Janabnat (obligatory ceremonial
bath) affected if the person discharges gas or urinates in between?
A. If while taking bath, the person
discharges gas through the rectum or urinates, he should abandon that bath and
take a fresh bath.
Q519. Are liquid medicines, perfumes, ghee, soap
and polish made in non-Islamic countries pure?
A. If one is not sure of their being
impure and there is likelihood of it being pure, they can be considered as pure.
Q520. Does hydrogenated oil (ghee) becomes ‘najis’
(impure) if excreta of a rat falls in it?
A. If the hydrogenated oil is in solid
state such that after taking out a portion which came in contact with the rat’s
excreta, the space remains vacant or fills up gradually later, only that part
which acquired impurity will be considered as impure.
The rest will remain pure. However,
if the excreta of a rat, or for that matter, of any animal whose meat is
unlawful for consumption, falls in a syrup or food, such that after removing a
portion, the space does not remain vacant, the entire quantity will become
impure as soon as the slightest part becomes impure.
Q521. Are nail, hair, teeth and bones of dead
human beings or animals pure?
A. Those parts of a dead body (other than
that of a dog, pig or a disbeliever) which does not contain life, such as nail,
hair, teeth and bones are pure.
Q522. Is it permissible to use perfume or scent
which contains spirit?
It is allowed to use it as perfume.
Q523. Does the impure sole of one’s foot or shoe
become purified by walking?
A. The impure sole of one’s foot or shoe
is purified by walking provided the following three conditions are fulfilled
earth should be pure
earth should be dry.
the original impurity, like blood or urine is stuck on the sole of the foot or
shoe of a person, it should be cleared by walking on earth or by rubbing the
foot or shoe on it. It is necessary
that the earth consists of clay or sand or floor made of stones or bricks. Walking on green grasses or tar or wooden floor
cannot serve the purpose.
Q524. What is the order about the water which
splatters on the body while washing impure things?
A. If the impure thing is washed with ‘kur’
water (about 384 litres) or running water, the water which falls from it or
splatters, after the washing with which it becomes pure, will be considered as
Q525. Is it necessary to find out the legal
position about the state of purity of a thing?
A. It is obligatory for a ‘muqallid’
(follower of a jurist) to learn the judgements about the problems which are
faced by him usually. If a person
does not know whether a thing is pure or not, he should refer to the relevant
book or ask someone reliable to enlighten him.
However, if in spite of knowing the legal position, he is doubtful whether or
not the thing is pure — the thing is pure and it is not necessary for him to
make investigation or inquiry about it.
Q526. What is the order regarding a person’s
purity whose faith is not known?
A. A person about whom it is not known
whether he is a Muslim or not is pure.
However, he does not enjoy other rights applicable to Muslims. For example, he cannot marry a Muslim woman and
should not be buried in the graveyard of the Muslims.
Q527. Will the food be considered pure in which a
drop of blood falls while cutting onions?
A. If even a particle of blood falls in
the food while it is being cooked, the entire food together with its container
becomes impure and boiling cannot purify it.
But if blood falls on solid food such that with the removal of a portion of
food, blood is completely removed, the remaining food will be pure.
Q528. Can one employ a non-Muslim servant for
washing clothes and utensils?
A. One may employ a non-Muslim servant
for washing clothes and utensils provided you purify them before drying the
clothes or using the utensils.
Q529. Does the sitting of a fly or an insect on a
pure thing which is also wet make the thing impure?
A. If one knows that the fly or insect
was carrying impurity with it, the pure thing which is also wet will become
impure. But it will remain pure if
one does not know.
Q530. Does the water, regarding which one doubts
whether it has become less than a kur (about 384 litres), purify an impure
A. If the quantity of water is equal to
a kur and later one doubts whether it has become less than a kur, it will be
treated to be equal to a kur i.e. it purifies an impure thing and does not become
impure if an impurity reaches it.
Q531. Can a person, who has become “Junub”
(ceremonially unclean) on account of an unlawful act and performed ceremonial
bath or tayammum, perform prayers with the perspiration experienced later on?
A. The perspiration of a person who
becomes ceremonially unclean owing to an unlawful act is pure, but on the basis
of recommended precaution, prayers should not be offered with it. Hence it is recommended that he should take bath
with cold water.
Q532. Is it necessary to perform bath after
emission of a white, sticky fluid occurs of its own immediately after
A. The liquid which at times comes out
after urine, of its own accord called “Wadi”, is pure if urine does not reach
it and does not require a bath.
Q533. How does one give bath to a bandaged dead
A. Jabira (Medical cover) bathing is not
permissible in the case of bathing of dead body and if there is some valid
excuse for abstaining from giving bath, the dead body should be made to perform
tayammum for each bathing, and the obligatory precaution is that it should be
made to perform a fourth tayammum also in lieu of 3 bathing. If possible, the tayammum should be performed with
the palms of the dead body.
Q534. What should one do when the impurity of
dress is realized after completing the prayers?
A. If you were not aware of the impurity
of the dress and came to know about it after completing the prayers, the
prayers are in order. But in case
you had forgotten about it and recollected it after completing the prayers you
should offer the prayers again with pure clothes, and if the time prescribed
for that prayer has passed, you should offer its qaza.
Q535. After washing clothes, one of the child’s
clothes is found to contain impurity.
Does it make all the other clothes impure?
A. Only those wet clothes or parts will
become impure which has acquired impurity and the remaining part will remain
Q536. Is the bath for ‘janabat’ (ceremonial
uncleanness) obligatory for a person who does not experience seminal emission
A. Irrespective of the fact that seminal
emission has taken place or not, the bath for ‘Janabat’ becomes obligatory upon
Q537. Does bath for ceremonial uncleanness also
apply to women?
If a person has sexual intercourse with a woman and the male organ enters
either of the private parts of the woman upto the point of circumcision or more
than that, both of them become unclean and should take the ceremonial bath.
Q538. If any person touches a pig what can he do
to become pure?
A. If both you and the pig are not wet
then no need to purify. If any one
is wet then after washing three times with water you will become paak.
Q539. At times one feels wetness at the penis. What should be done?
A. Just wetness does not mean that it is
semen. So, it is not Najis. If one’s doctor tells him, or one himself knows that
it is urine dropping, then he needs to wash it before performing Wuzu. If it is not urine, nor semen, one does not need
to do anything.
Q540. Is the skull of a dead man Najis? In
Biology Lab we frequently touch man’s skull.
If it is Najis is it wajib (obligatory) to take bath (i.e. Ghusl-e-Mass-e-Mayyit)?
A. Yes, Ghusl (bath) of Mass-e-Mayyit
becomes Wajib (obligatory), if one touches the body or the bone of a dead
person after the body has become cold (and, in the case of a Muslim’s dead
body, after it has become cold and before Ghusl-e-Mayyit has been given). If he/she touches it in the night, Ghusl-e-Mass-e-Mayyit
should be performed before morning prayers (if because of unbearable cold or
illness, one is unable to perform this Ghusl (bath) even with hot water,
tayammum should be done in its place.
Q541. Some types of soap which are imported from
outside contain lard in their ingredients but at the end, only 5% remains in
them. In that case, is the ruling of
transformation (istehalah) applicable to it and is the soap ruled to be
ritually pure, or does it remain ritually impure?
It remains ritually impure. God knows best.
What is the ruling on blood that
coagulates under the fingernail, being the result of a blow or some other
cause? This blood then moves gradually to the outside and it is not possible to
remove it. Is this blood ritually
impure or ritually pure? And how is it treated if it is considered ritually
If it does not change (into
something other than blood), it is to be considered ritually impure, and it is
obligatory to remove it if there is not difficulty in doing so. But if it presents a problem, then that which
seems apparent is to substitute tayammum for Wuzu and ghusl (bath). God knows best.
What is the ruling on someone who
performs one of the obligatory ghusls and, after completing the ghusl (bath) or
a few hours thereafter, he finds something that prevented the water from
reaching a finger of his left hand or a toe of his left foot. Is he obligated to repeat the ghusl (bath) of the
entire left part, or is it adequate to wash only that spot with the intention
of ghusl (bath)?
It is enough to wash that spot
only and, based on obligatory precaution, he should combine it with Wuzu if a
hadas (impurity) has taken place during that time.
God knows best.
What is the ruling on a person who
used to pray and fast but committed several mistakes in the major ablution
(Ghusl)? He is absolutely sure now that some of his previous ghusls were void,
but he does not know how many. As a
result he is not aware of how many invalid prayers and fasts he offered with
His fasts are valid even if his
Ghusl (bath) is invalid. However, it
is obligatory for him to offer qaza of all the prayers he offered with the
invalid Ghusl (bath). If he is
unsure about the minimum and the maximum, he may limit himself to the minimum.
It often happens that I shake hands
with someone while my hands are wet.
I do not know whether the one with whom I shook hands is a Muslim or an unbeliever
(kafir), who is not, regarded as ritually pure (tahir).
Is it obligatory for me to ask him in order to make sure?
Certainly not. It is not obligatory for you to ask him. You may assume that the hand with which I touched
his hand was ritually pure.
A university student, businessman,
tourist or some such person travels to a non-Muslim country, say, Europe, such
that scarcely a day passes without direct contact with its Christian and Jewish
inhabitants, with the moisture exchange in the cafe, or at the barber shop,
doctor’s office, dry-cleaners, etc.
making it difficult to count (the places).
What should he do?
He should assume the ritual
purity of their bodies as long as he does not know that their ritual impurity
(najasah) was acquired from an external source.
If I move into a place which was
inhabited before me by people who are not judged to be ritually pure, is it
correct for me to consider everything ritually pure?
Yes, consider everything
ritually pure if you do not know or are unsure of its ritual impurity.
Ayatullah Syed Ali Husaini Seestani
(May he live long) has ruled that water from a tap shall be treated as “Kur” if
the source to which the tap is attached contains kur water. My question is what if the reservoir to which the
tap is attached, though it doesn’t contain Kur water but that reservoir is in
turn attached by way of an electric motor to an underground water tank
containing Kur water. Shall the tap
water be treated as Kur when the motor is switched off?
The tap water will cease to be
Kur as soon as the motor is switched off and the connection between the
underground water tank and the reservoir gets disconnected. This is presuming that the reservoir is of a
lesser than Kur capacity. However,
the tap water will not be najis unless any najasat enters into the reservoir
and tap section after the switching off the water.
Sometimes married couples have to
ignore the Fajr Namaz for want of performing Ghusl-e-Janabat in cold climates
and secondly due to the embarrassment of doing it in the early morning when
elders are present in the house. In
such conditions can a person do Tayammum in lieu of Ghusl-e-Janabat?
When Ghusl-e-Janabat is Wajib
(obligatory) then it must be performed.
Cold climate is not an excuse to leave it unless it is harmful or dangerous to
the person’s health, in which case Tayammum is to be performed in lieu of
Ghusl-e-Janabat. Regarding the
embarrassment of doing Ghusl-e-Janabat in the presence of elders, it cannot as
well be an excuse not to do it.
After doing Ghusl-e-Jumma, is it
necessary to offer Namaz-e-Jumma, before performing acts, which require Wuzu?
It is not necessary to offer
Namaz-e-Jumma before performing acts which require Wuzu.
The person can for instance, offer Namaz before Namaz-e-Jumma after doing
Should vapours which rise from Najis
(unclean) ground while draining rice-water, considered ‘Paak’ or Najis’?
Such vapours should be
considered as clean since evaporation is a purifying agent.
While walking in the rain the bottoms
of my trousers become wet from the water being splashed up from the
sidewalk/pavement. Do I need to
change trousers before I pray?
You do not need to change such
cloth for praying because you are not sure that it became Najis, though it
became wet from the sidewalk or pavement.
Such wetness is not Najis.
After cleaning oneself of Najis things
on the body, when one is performing Ghusl (bath) for Janabat or periods
(menstrual), is it compulsory that water should reach every part of the body?
Can I put water in such a way that water flows from upper parts of body,
without actually reaching each and every part?
During Ghusl (bath), water must
reach every external part of the body.
You do not need to make water flow on every external part, but the wetness of
the water must reach.
Recently, I met with an accident and
broke my left hand which is now plastered.
Due to this, I am unable to perform ghusl (bath) (janabat) as respects my left-half
and right-half of my body. The only
place where I can perform it is on my head and neck? Can you please tell me if
it is alright if I do not perform ghusl (bath) for a few days until the plaster
You must perform the ghusl
(bath) of janabat whenever you fall into a state of janabat. You pour water on the open parts of your body and
wipe with wetness on the plastered parts that you cannot pour water on. It is worth mentioning that pouring water is not
wajib (obligatory) in ghusl (bath), but only making any quantity of it reach
your body no matter how small it might be.
If that is not possible, then you must wipe on the plaster itself as far as it
is tahir (paak), and if it is not, then you must put a piece of paak cloth over
it and wipe on it with a little of wetness.
The same is to be done in case of wuzu if any part of the body where Wuzu is
done is plastered.
Can a person on whom the ‘Ghusl (bath)
Mass-e-Mayyat’ (for touching the corpse) is incumbent offer his daily prayers
with Wuzu (ablution) alone?
He cannot offer Salaat (prayers)
before performing ‘Ghusl (bath) Mass-e-Mayyat’.
It is obligatory to perform the ghusl (bath) (ritual bath) when a person
touches a corpse after it has become cold and before it has been given the “Ghusl-e-Mayyat”
Q556. What is the fate of non-Muslims in aakherat
[hereafter] who love Imam Husain (a.s.)?
A. The primary requirement is to believe
in ‘wahdaniyat’ (Unity) of Allah and to accept Prophet Mohammad (s.a.w.a.) as
Allah’s prophet. Of course Allah is
just and any good done by any one will be compensated by him either in this
world or in the hereafter. May be he
is compensated in this world for his good action.
Q557. Do we believe that the resurrection of
human beings in the Here-after world will be metaphysical in nature?
A. It is one of the fundamental beliefs
of Muslims that human beings will be bodily resurrected in the Here-after. The Qur’an clearly states: “What! Does man
reckon We shall not gather his bones.
Yes, indeed, We are able to shape again his fingers”.
In theory, science, too, considers the cloning of a living being from its
residue a viable proposition.
Q558. Do people in the hereafter cease to have
any memory about this world?
The Holy Qur’an informs us of people in Heaven as saying: “A speaker from
among them shall say: Surely I had a comrade...” and also about people in Hell as saying: “And
they shall say: What is the matter that we do not see men whom we used to count
Q559. Is it true that the punishment for every
sin that I commit will also be borne by my father who is deceased and is in
aalame barzarkh now?
A. The punishment for your sins will be
on you and not on your father. You
may seek forgiveness and pray for your father and try to do good deeds on his
Q560. What is the difference between nafs and
rooh? Also in the Hereafter, are we going to arise with the same appearance as
we have in this world? I would also like to know whether we can really see
those who are dead.
A. Al-Nafs (self) according to the Holy
Qur’an is of three types:
1. An-Nafs al-Mutma’innah (the Peaceful
self): This is the self of the most pious people.
Peaceful Nafs is living in peace because of the remembrance and love of Allah
(s.w.t.), and when such Nafs leaves this life, it goes
back to Allah with satisfaction and happiness as it was always enjoying His
love and was longing to meet His great mercy far away from this polluted
materialistic life. In Surah
al-Fajr, it has been said: “O peaceful self, return to your Lord, pleased
with His mercy, He pleased with you, and enter with My servants and enter My Paradise.”
An-Nafs al-Lawwaamah (The
Blaming self): This is the self of most believers who blame themselves if they
do badly. Blaming self is seeking
purification from the dirt of Sins, through repentance and seeking forgiveness
An-Nafs al-Ammaarah Bis-Soo’
(The Evil-ordering self): Which is the self of the sinners, ordering them to do
bad and follow satanic whispering and evil desires.
is the soul or spirit which is the cause of life.
It is from Allah (s.w.t.) and
we, humans know very little about it.
Allah says in the Holy Qur’an: “And they ask you about Rooh, tell them Rooh
is from the affairs of Allah, and you were not given from the knowledge but a
is granted to us after the formation of the body in the womb of the mother. It remains with us as far as we are alive in this
world. Rooh leaves our body when we
die but remains with us after that and enjoys reward of the believer, or
suffers the punishment of the sinner.
appearance in Aakherah (Hereafter): People will have same appearance and they
will know and recognize each other (Yata’rafoona Baynahum) as is mentioned in
the Holy Qur’an. The main appearance
will be the same but there will also be some changes such as:
believer’s faces will be brightened, while the sinner’s faces will be blackened
(“Yawma tabyazzo wojoohown wa taswaddo wojooh”) (“The Day when faces will
brightened and faces will be darkened).
people of Paradise will appear in their youth.
people of Paradise will be very beautiful. The wife of a Mo’min will be made in his eyes as
the most beautiful woman. He will be
also in her eyes the most beautiful man.
people of Paradise will have Noor (light)
moving with them (“Noorohom Yas’a Bayna Aydeehim Wa Be Aymaanehim”) (“Their
light moves in front of them and on their right”).
sinners will have very bad shapes according to the type of their sins. The arrogant will be like an ant which people will
stamp with their feet, while other sinners will be like monkeys or pigs and so
can see people who are dead in dreams only as far as we are still in this life. We will be able to see them after our death when we
are with them in the world of Barzakh, which is the state between death and the
Day of Judgement.
pray that we are always prepared for our future which can start any time, by
being at all times with Allah (s.w.t.) in
our hearts and deeds.
What is the possible benefit of
punishment in the Hereafter?
Punishment is natural reflection
and consequence of a bad deed.
Reward is also a natural consequence of a good deed.
Punishment of crimes is essential to eliminate evil acts in the society. Without such punishment, life would be
catastrophic, as nothing will limit crimes and injustice.
The fear from punishment stops many people from committing evil.
life will not be peaceful without a punishment here and in the Hereafter. The punishment in the Hereafter is more important
as it also controls those sins which are not seen publicly.
short, peaceful and perfect life is impossible without a punishment against
sins and crimes here and in the Hereafter.
Q562. What are the eight gates of Paradise? What are their names and who can enter from
A. There are eight gates for Paradise named after important good deeds. Those who perform those good deeds will enter from
Q563. What is the possible benefit of eternal
punishment in Hell? What purpose does it serve?
A. The benefit of punishment in the
Hereafter is to decrease bad deeds and counter injustice.
The punishment is a natural consequence of bad deeds, just as reward is a
natural consequence of good deeds.
Without the expected punishment, life would have been terrible in this world
Q564. We read that during Me’raj the Holy Prophet
witnessed people undergoing various kinds of punishments in Hell. Does it mean that people enter Hell or Heaven
before the Day of Judgement?
A. People do not enter Hell or Heaven
before the Day of Judgement. But in
Me’raj, Allah showed the Prophet (s.a.w.a.) examples and samples of the results of good deeds
and bad deeds as illustrations for the guidance of the Muslim Ummat.
Q565. Is it enough to say ‘Astaghferullah’ (May
Allah forgive me) after doing Gheebat’ (back-biting)?
Gheebat is a major sin which is
worse than Zina (adultery). It makes
no sense in committing a sin, whose damage cannot be repaired by saying “Astaghferullah”. Real repentance is done only once, after which
that mistake is never repeated.
Should one lie for a good purpose?
What is permissible is telling an untruth for the sake of bringing about
reconciliation among two Mu’mineen.
If a lie creates goodwill between two Mu’mineen, it is better than conveying a
truth which will lead to discord.
For instance, conveying a piece of backbiting to another may be telling the
truth, but if it will rupture their relationship then it would be a sin.
Will it amount to backbiting if I
discuss the behaviour of my brother with other members of the family?
Gheebat is that which is
disliked by the person who is being discussed.
As long as it does not amount to “Gheebat”, the discussion will be permissible.
Masturbating considered as a major or
a minor sin?
Masturbating is a disgusting act
and a major sin. The Islamic penal
code punishes the person who indulges in such an act with the same punishment
apportioned for adulterers.
According to one ‘hadees’ (narrative) masturbating is a sin bigger than
adultery. People who hope to earn
Allah’s Grace should refrain from all sins, be they major or minor in nature.
What is the difference between ‘Hasad’
Whenever someone hears of a
blessing which Allah has granted another person, he is in either of the two
state: he experiences ‘Hasad’, that is, jealousy, which is disliking the fact
of another receiving the blessing and favouring the idea of the other person
being deprived of that thing even if he is not a beneficiary in the bargain. Or he experiences ‘Ghebtah’, that is he vies for
the blessing without having any ill-feeling towards the person who is enjoying
it. The Messenger of Allah (s.a.w.a.)
says: “A Mo’min vies for a thing and Munafiq feels jealous”.
I have committed a sin for which Islam
has prescribed punishment. Should I
confess my sin to the learned jurist whom I follow or can confess to his
A person who commits a sin
should repent sincerely to Allah alone and remain hopeful of His Forgiveness. And the proof of sincerity is that the person does
not commit the sin again. Allah
promises something more to such a person in the Holy Qur’an: “Except him who
repents and believes and does a good deed; these are they for whom Allah
changes the evil deeds to good ones; and Allah is Forgiving, Merciful”. So there is no need to confess to any other
human being, howsoever learned he may be.
Now-a-days wherever one goes you find
people indulging in backbiting in one form or the other.
What should one do?
Don’t go to a place, where you
know for sure, that people commit this sin of backbiting.
If you find people back-biting in your presence tell them not to do so. If you can’t or when they don’t heed, leave the
In case the haram money is mixed with
the halal money what is to be done?
If halal property gets mixed up
in such a way that it is not possible to identify each from the other, and the
owner of the haraam property and its quantity are not known, and if it is also
not known whether the quantity of the haraam property is more or less than the
due Khums, the person concerned should pay Khums, with the Niyyat of Qurbat on
the entire property, to one entitled to receive Khums and such properties whose
owners are unknown, and after the payment of Khums the balance will become
halal for him.
Is there any sin, which God never
forgives? If so, what is it?
Yes, first that of ascribing any
partner or colleague to Allah. ‘Allah’
says: “Verily Allah forgives not that anything be associated with Him.”
Also, He will never forgive a sin, however small or minor, when the sinner does
not give up that sin and goes on committing it.
Allah says: - “And repentance is not profitable for those who do evil until
death comes to one of them, then he says ‘Now surely I repent.”
Why is it said that when you steal,
all things around there will provide evidence against you before God?
Well, why are you astonished?
Even today soulless things give evidence for or against a man in the courts. Finger-prints, tapes, clothes, shoes, things
belonging to a thief which are found near the place of theft, these are scores
of such things give evidence in courts.
So what is strange if the surrounding things were to provide evidence against a
sinner on the Day of Judgement?
I am very concerned about how
sileh-Raham is practised, and to what extent it should be practised. For instance my parents constantly tell me about
how I should be practising Sileh-Raham, i.e. being good to my relatives.
What if my relatives have really mistreated people or have done other things
that are totally against the laws of Islam openly.
Do I still practise sileh-raham, knowing full well that it seems wrong? I also want
to know what exactly Sileh-Raham is.
Please advice soon. I am in the taqlid
to Agha Seestaani.
Sile Rahm means to maintain and
make amends with blood relations - parents and the relatives who are
consanguinal i.e. sharing the womb -like, brothers and sisters etc. The Prophet (s.a.w.a.) and our Aimma (a.s.) have repeatedly emphasised upon us this virtue
and so does Qur’an-e-Majid. We have
been enjoined to maintain Sile Rahm even if the relatives do not reciprocate. Now, what they do by way of evil acts is their
responsibility. You are not
responsible as long as you do not assist them, directly or indirectly in
whatever they do. You are confined
to your relation with them only.
Sile Rahm confers the pleasure of Allah, averts many adversities, causes increase
in Rizq as well as life span.
How should I avoid sins? What should I
do if I keep doing bad things?
Doing bad things knowing that
they are bad means that you are weak before your desires.
When your intellect becomes mature and balanced, then you will control your
desires. There is a hadees saying
that Allah (s.w.t.) has
created the angels and put in them reason without desire; while He create the
animals and put in them desire without reason.
However, He (s.w.t.)
created human beings and put in them both reason and desire. So, if the human being keeps his reason
controlling his desires, he will then be superior to the angels, and if he
keeps his desires controlling his reason, then he will be worse than animals. If we remember the result of bad deeds, we will
never commit any sin purposely.
In order to fight for my rights, I
have to speak some lies, i.e. mix truth with lies.
If I don’t do this, I can lose my rights.
So in this case, can lies be spoken?
We cannot mix truth with any
word of lies because it is Haraam, and it will make us fail both here in this
life and in the hereafter.
I have been a very big sinner since my
young age. I started masturbating at
a very young age (12) not knowing that it was a sin.
Slowly it became a habit that I could not stop.
Although as I grew older I came to know it was haraam.
Today, I am 23 and have altogether stopped indulging in this sin. Words cannot describe the extent to which I regret
it. I ask for forgiveness from The
Most Merciful but still am not satisfied and feel that I have to do more. What more can I do?
Keep on reciting Istighfaar as
much as you can, day and night especially at the time of Sahar (the last sixth
part of the night). It is also very
good to recite Istighfaar during Sujood (prostration).
Saying ‘Laa Elaaha illaa anta subhaanaka innee kunto menaz zaalemeen’
is very useful, the meaning of which is: ‘There is no God but You. Glory to You.
Surely, I was from the wrong doers.’
should not lose hope from the forgiveness of Allah (s.w.t.). Be sure always that Allah is The Forgiver and The
Q579. Mention some of the most dangerous sins?
A. Some of the most dangerous sins are:
Polytheism, denying the orders of Allah (s.w.t.),
opposing the servants of Allah (s.w.t.),
killing the innocent, harming any of the parents, fornication, eating up the
wealth of orphans, usury, bribe, ill-treating relatives, false oath, usurping
other’s rights, putting allegations on innocent, lying and stealing and many
What is the Islamic view regarding
It is absolutely Haram even if
the Zygote is one hour old or even one minute old since that the zygote is
formed, it is haraam to abort. It is
a misconception among many people that there is no soul in it so we can abort
it. We cannot abort any embryo at
all just when the zygote is formed.
It is not Jaiz (permissible) at all.
If it is aborted the penalty differs, that is if the age is either 20 day, 40
days, 60 days or 3 months. The penalty,
which we get deeya, is different but abortion is always haraam.
of abortion is different depending on period of pregnancy:
bones start forming
bones are being covered with flesh
soul appears, for Male
soul appears, for Female
A Dinar is one Misqal of gold
Can Women watch men who are doing ‘Matam’
with Zanjeer without their shirts on?
Women should avoid looking at
men and they should not watch the ‘Matam’ of Na-mahram (not related by blood)
men. At the same time, it is not
Wajib (obligatory) for the gents to cover their bodies during Matam.
Is discarding wearing of Islamic ‘Hijaab’
in public by women a minor sin or a Gunah-e-Kabeera (major sin)?
It is a Gunah-e-Kabeera (major
sin) to discard the wearing of Islamic Hijaab in front of Namahram. There is a Hadees from the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) that
the women who will not cover their hair and body in front of Namahram will
never get the smell of the Heaven.
In many other traditions of the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.), he cursed women who appear in front of Namahram
without Islamic dress (Hijab) and ordered Muslims to curse them because this
Gunah is not limited to the individual woman herself but also puts in sin every
person who looks at her. The sin of
such a woman will increase manifold due to this.
Can women spend the money earned by
themselves without their husband’s permission?
Women can spend the money earned
by themselves without taking the permission of their husbands except that it
should not cause damage to the husband’s interests.
Otherwise she can do what she likes, according to Islamic Shariat.
Some enemies of Islam accuse that
although women are considered free in Islam, she is told not to take any steps
without her husband’s permission? Please explain.
The area of work, which involves
the rights of the husband, requires his approval.
Other than that, women do many kinds of work.
Will she take permission for every thing? A woman cannot give preference to
something, which deprives the rights of the husband.
When she fulfils her duties, then she can do other things.
For instance, a husband cannot say, ‘leave the book and make me a cup of tea.’
woman is free in Islam just as a man.
It is incumbent on a man to provide maintenance.
Similarly it is incumbent on the woman to discharge her conjugal duties.
Some people believe that it is not
good for Muslim women to go for higher education or to become doctors or to
work outside is this correct?
No, it is not correct. Islam does not prohibit women from getting higher
education. It is good to acquire
knowledge and in some cases it becomes incumbent to.
For instance, it is necessary to have lady-doctors for Muslim Women.
Muslim women who go out for their education should abstain from forbidden acts
like discarding the hijab, etc.
A woman has been advised by her
doctors that conceiving a child would be harmful to her life. Can the husband force her to conceive as a matter
If it is dangerous to the life
of the woman her husband cannot force her.
Islam never condones any act of harm and injustice.
Women go near seaside to recite ‘Haq Ali,
Haq’. Is it permissible to do so?
Recognizing and remembering that
truth is on the side of Hazrat Ali (a.s.), every minute of our lives and with every breath,
would not be enough to repay the price of guidance and salvation we owe him. But why the seaside? One can do that wherever one
is. And women in particular, should
observe Hijab before Na-mahram and avoid any sort of inter-mingling’ with
Will a Mu’min be held responsible if
women come to the Majalis (i.e. mourning ceremonies) of Imam Husain (a.s.)
The Mu’min besides other
arrangements should also ensure that the sanctity of the majalis is also
respected. The organizer should
announce the necessity of observing hijab for the women attending the majalis. If the organizer does not speak this condition and
women attend it without hijab, he will be held responsible and will get a share
from the sin. Women should not
insult the memory of Janabe Zainab (s.a.) by attending Majalises without hijab.
Girls without hijab and carrying
candles are surrounded by men doing Maatam during the ‘Shaam-e-Gharibaan’. Is it permissible?
If the girls are above 9 years
of age, it is not at all permissible for them to appear without hijab before
Do women have to perform Qaza Namaz
and Qaza fasts missed during the period of Haiz or Nifas?
It will not be obligatory
(Wajib) for women to offer the Namaz missed by them due to Haiz or Nifas. However, the Qaza of the fasting of the month of
Ramzan will have to be observed later.
Can Muslim women apply “tikka”
(colourful dots) on their foreheads for beauty purpose?
Any custom or manner of
clothing, appearance or food, which is exclusively identified with the culture
of non-Muslims, would not be considered permissible.
Muslim women should not copy their non-Muslim counterpart.
During her monthly period can a woman
handle the Quran, like lifting or shifting it? Can she pray the Ayats of Quran
without touching the alphabets? Are the rules same for men in Janabat?
Yes, a woman can handle or shift
the Quran during her periods and can recite the Ayats.
She should not, however, touch the letters and alphabets.
The rule is same for men in Janabat.
It must be noted that Ayats which prescribe a wajib (obligatory) Sajdah should
not be recited during these conditions.
Some women believe that during
pregnancy one should not touch scissors and needles because the child will come
to harm or injury. Is it true?
These are useless superstitions that
have no basis or connection with the Islamic Shariah.
Can a lady apply nail polish on her
feet, except her toenails?
If this procedure is to
facilitate her in performing Wuzu, it is all right.
Her Wuzu will be valid but before taking Ghusl (bath) she shall have to remove
the nail polish from all the nails.
Should a wife remain silent when her
husband is known to be earning his income from haram unlawful sources?
The wife should not remain
silent but persuade him at first with good arguments and if he still persists,
she should continue him in every possible manner until he gives up his wrong
Should a wife obey her husband by
going out with him without hijab for watching a movie?
The wife should not obey her
husband in things, which amounts to disobedience of Allah’s Commandments. She should resist from going to the Cinema for
watching anti-Islamic films and from going out without hijab. She should do this in a gentle manner without
Some Muslim women believe that widows
and pregnant women should not attend the ‘Niyaz’ organised in the name of
Janab-e-Fatema (s.a.) because it causes disrespect? Is it an Islamic
The Islamic Shariah says that
there is no disrespect involved in the presence of widows or pregnant women
during such ‘Niyaz’.
are talks, which are rooted in ignorance (jahiliyyat) and infidelity (Kufr). It comes from religion where stones are venerated
but human beings are disgraced. It
is a sin to insult a Mu’mina just because she is a widow or pregnant or
experiencing menstruation. This is
oppression and Muslims should discard such practices.
Is it permissible for women to look at
Looking at the Orator’s face and
hands is not haram provided there is no possibility of sin?
Is it obligatory for old women to
observe “Hijab” (i.e. covering hair and body, except the face and hands
from the wrist to the finger-tips)?
Hijab is obligatory for females
from the time they become mature till the end of her life.
Is it not better for women to sit at
home and listen to music rather than going out without ‘hijaab?
Both acts are forbidden (haram). The question of the preference of one over the
other does not arise.
Is it true that a widow should not
wear jewellery and go out of the house?
Immediately after the death of
her husband the widow should observe an Iddah (waiting period) of 4 months and
10 days. During this period she
should observe mourning by not wearing jewellery and celebrative clothes and
refrain from attending marriage or other happy ceremonies, as far as possible. Although, she can go out to meet relatives, for
ziarat and other necessary work by observing complete hijaab.
Did the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.)
curse women who go out without hijab before Na-mahram? Is it permissible for a
Muslim to publicly curse a lady without hijab?
The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) not
only invoked Allah’s curse on women who appear without hijab before Na-mahram
but also told other Mu’mineen to curse her.
Men should not ordinarily curse such women publicly because they could be
ignorant about their Islamic obligation.
So they should be informed first.
But when they refuse to observe hijab or deny it, they should be cursed.
What is the Islamic viewpoint about “Gaud-Bharai”
in which ladies put coconut and sweets in a portion of the dress, which the
pregnant lady is wearing?
There is no such thing in Islam. Its origin can probably be found in Old Women’s
Tales. This is an Indian custom. What is recommended for pregnant ladies is to
avoid eating things whose Islamic purity is doubtful, to avoid listening to
music, be with Wuzu, do Ehtiyat (precaution), etc.
Is it permissible for ladies to drive
two-wheelers in complete hijab?
It is undesirable. If there is possibility of sin, it will be
forbidden to do so. Out of necessity
alone should a lady venture out of her house? Although it is basically not
prohibited, it is not desirable for ladies to drive two-wheelers.
Is it permissible for ladies to
participate in processions on the streets and attract attention of Na-mahram
If the lady goes with the
intention that men should see her, it will be haram.
For Allah’s Pleasure alone, if ladies participate in a procession, it is not
only permissible but also akin to worship.
Is marriage of a Sayyed girl with
non-Sayyed boy permitted?
As far as both of them are
following the Ahlul Bayt (a.s.), the marriage between Sayyed and non-Sayyed is
Can a Muslim undertake processing of
photographs showing Na-Mahram women without proper hijab?
If the processor or his workers
do not see the prints of Na-Mahram women then it would be permitted for him to
undertake the work. The photographs
should not show immoral or un-Islamic acts.
Why is it said not to have intercourse
on Tuesday night i.e. Wednesday shab?
It is not at all if the wife is
not in menses or nifaas. The matter
in the question is based on a Riwayat, which does not mean (if proved authentic)
forbidding. This can be because of
natural factors in that night.
Is it permissible for a woman to use
contraceptives without her husband’s permission?
It is permissible for a woman to
use such contraceptives as are not very harmful, though her husband may not
agree to their use.
What is the obligation of a woman who
doubts whether it is ‘istihaza’ (undue menses) blood or some other blood?
If it does not possess signs of
other bloods she should on the basis of obligatory precaution, perform the acts
relating to istihaza.
Is it permissible to look at the body
and hair of non-Muslim women?
If there is no intention of
deriving pleasure, a person can look at the faces, hands and those parts of the
non-Muslim’s bodies which they do not habitually conceal.
It would not be permissible if there is likelihood of getting involved in
After the birth of my child, the blood
discharge lasted for nearly 25 days and some people told me that women are
exempted from prayers till one month after childbirth.
Recently one learned lady told me that I should have offered my prayers after
the tenth day. What is the correct
The blood which is discharged
when the first limb of the child comes out is known as the blood of ‘Nifaas’
(Lochia). It does not exceed 10 days. If blood discharge continues for more than 10 days
and you have a habit in the matter of menses, you should consider the days
equal to your habit to be ‘Awaas’ and the rest would be ‘Istihaza’ (i.e.
irregular menses). For example, if
the habit of a woman has been 6 days and her blood comes for more than 6 days,
she should treat 6 days to be Nifaas and also abandon the act of worship on the
7th day and on the 8th, 9th and 10th
day it is optional for her to abandon worship or to perform the act of Istihaza. And if her blood continues to come for more than
10 days, it will be governed by rules of istihaza.
For details regarding istihaza, refer to the ‘Risalah’ (book of Islamic
jurisprudence) of your Mujtahid. The
obligatory acts of worship, which you did not perform after the Nifas period,
should be remedied by performing them with the intention of lapsed prayers or
Is it advisable for women to visit the
It is not advisable for women to
visit the graveyard, as it is maqrooh [abominable] for them.
What should a woman do who doesn’t
know if the blood discharged is of menses or istihaza or a wound?
If blood is discharged for more
than 3 days and less than 10 days and she does not know whether the blood is of
menses or a sore or a wound, she should not treat that blood to be the blood of
menses. If she doubts whether the
blood is of menses or istihaza, she should treat it to be menses if it fulfils the
condition of menses.
Is kaffarah (atonement) due on a woman
whose husband compels her to have sexual intercourse?
If a man, who is fasting in the
month of Ramzan, compels his fasting wife to have sexual intercourse he should
make atonement for his own fast as well as for his wife’s.
And if the wife was agreeable one atonement becomes obligatory for each of them. However, if the woman becomes agreeable to it
during the intercourse, the man should on the basis of obligatory precaution,
make two atonements and the woman should make one atonement.
Can a woman suckle the child of her
daughter and son?
If a woman suckles the child of
her daughter i.e. her granddaughter or grandson the daughter becomes
unlawful for her husband. If, a
woman suckles the child of her son, the wife of her son does not become
unlawful for her husband.
I observe Hijab before strangers and
while going out of the house but not before my relatives like my maternal or
paternal cousins. A person told me
that I’m mistaken. Is that person
The person is correct because you must observe Hijab before ‘Na-mahram” men
(those with whom marriage is permissible) and it does not make any difference
if the Na-mahram men are related to you or are strangers.
Is it permissible for mohrim women to
cover their faces? And if not, what is the related kaffarah?
It is not permissible for women
to cover their faces during the state of ehram, but there is no kaffarah for it.
Can women enter an Imambara in the
state of Haiz?
Yes, they can. The state of purification is necessary before
entering the shrines of Holy Imams and all mosques.
Q620. Can ladies sit in Etekaaf in the house? Can
we do Etekaaf in other months also?
Allamah Shaikh Saduq quoting Allamah
Halbi who referring Imam Sadiq (a.s.) has said that none can sit in Etekaaf unless one
fasts and is present in Jame Masjid.
Imam further said that the Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) used to sit in Etekaf in the last ten days of
bin Mahboob quoting Abu Ayyub who quoted Abu Basir who quoted Imam Sadiq (a.s.) who
said that Etekaf must be for at least three days and whoever sits in Etekaf
must observe fast and the person sitting in Etekaf must observe the
restrictions which are bound for one wearing Ehram.
(Ibid, H. 2095) Abu Ayyub further
quoting Hazrat Imam Mohammad Baqer (a.s.) who said that the person sitting in Etekaf must
not smell a flower, nor sees in a mirror nor indulges in any sort of
transactions. And if one has already
spent three days in Etekaf it is optional for him that on the fourth day he may
sit in Etekaf for three more days or may come out of it.
But in the second session if one has spent two days in Etekaf then one must not
come out until one completes all the three days.
has been quoted saying that any person sitting in Etekaf is not allowed to go
out of the mosque without having any vital requirement and if one comes out of
the Mosque then he/she should not sit anywhere till he/she returns to his/her
previous place. Imam further said
that this rule is applicable to women as well.
bin Yahya quoting Abdul Rahman bin Hajjaj who quoted Imam Sadiq (a.s.) who
said that if a person sitting in Etekaf falls ill or if a woman starts bleeding
(menstruate) then he/she should return to his/her house and after recovering
should observe fast and sit in Etekaf.
A woman has regular periods and on the
seventh day she is free of menstrual blood.
But after relations with her husband, blood returns and continues until the
tenth day and then stops. In this
case, is there any sin or is expiation obligatory for her?
There is no sin on her part and
no expiation is needed in the hypothetical question.
God knows best.
If a woman with regular menstrual
cycle notices, during 2 or 3 days of her cycle, intermittent blood, which has
none of the characteristics of haiz.
Then, she sees blood with the characteristics of haiz for 5 days — which
altogether makes 7 (days). What is
the ruling on her?
The intermittent blood is not
haiz because the minimum number of days for it to be haiz is 3 days. However, what she sees in the 5 days is considered
Is a woman with light (qalilah) or
moderate (mutawassetah) bleeding (istehaza) obligated to perform the Wuzu
between two prayers even if no blood is found between them (the prayers)? How
about tawaf and its prayer?
It is not obligatory, assuming
that the blood has stopped and the cotton was not stained by it.
Is a man permitted to have relations
with his wife after nifas period lasting 10 days has ended, while being aware
that blood continues, with the characteristic of istihaza, to flow from her for
more than 18 days?
It is permissible, although it
is preferable to take precautions from the 10th until the 18th day.
Is nifas applicable only upon giving
birth? Or is it deemed to occur simply because of a delivery, regardless of
whether it is full-term or not - such as the miscarried foetus with a soul or
without a soul, or the miscarried mudgah (lump of flesh) or ‘alaqah
The ruling of nifas between a
full-term creation and others to which the term “birth” can be applied do not
differ in their implementation. As
for the blood that exits with the mudgah and ‘alaqah, applying the ruling of
nifas to them is problematic, rather forbidden.
Two months after delivering a child
and breast-feeding a lady experience some bleeding which is not normal for her
menses. This change I suppose is to
be expected due to hormonal imbalance.
What is the ruling in this case? Should it be treated as haiz or istehaza (she
has recovered from Nifaas)? In either case, please elaborate on masaail of
taharat and prayers etc.
If it cannot be Haiz, it will
have to be Istehaza. As to the
degree of Istehaza, the lady will have to determine it herself. It cannot be Haiz as specified that it is not her
menses. The rule of a Mustahaaza
will apply. Depending on whether it
is little, medium or excessive, she will have to perform either Wuzu before
every prayer (as in the case of little) or one ghusl (bath) every day before
Fajr prayers (as in the case of medium) or perform a ghusl (bath) every time
she stands up to pray totalling to three ghusl (bath) for the day (as in the
case of excessive).
Is conjugal union allowed in Istehaza?
There is no problem
My wife is pregnant. We just found out last week that our unborn child
has major heart deformities. The
child will not survive without three consecutive operations. The first of which are to be carried out during
the first few hours of life. These
operations have a survival rate of about 50% through the first 24 months of
life. They are fairly new, so it is
unknown how much longer those children can live to be.
It is unclear either what the quality of life for such a child would be even if
he survived. I know abortion is
Haram in Islam for a healthy pregnancy.
Are there any exceptions in cases of such lethal deformities?
Abortion in such case is not
permissible. The survival and the
quality of life of the child may turn out to be much better than the doctors
predict. The only situation in which
abortion has been allowed is when the pregnancy endangers the mother’s life.
A Muslim woman wears high heel shoes
that hit the ground in such a way that it draws attention.
Is she allowed to wear it?
It is not permissible, if it is
intended to draw the attention of non-mahram men to herself, or if it generally
causes temptation (for committing sin).
Q630. Recently in London, some of the Islamic leaders have
allowed Muslim womenþ
NOT to observe hijab as a security measure.
What does Islam have to say on this?
A. Hijab is obligatory and compulsory on
the Muslim woman. No one can change
the orders of Allah (s.w.t.). Those who speak nowadays about leaving hijab due
to difficult situations are wrong and their logic is against the Holy Qur’an
and the authentic Ahadees (traditions).
women and men had faced many difficult situations in the past, but they had
never given up their responsibilities.
Reza Shah of Iran
had banned the hijab and severely punished those who challenged his orders. However Muslim women in Iran preferred to stay at home than
leave the hijab.
the situation in the West is bad, but not as bad as it was during the dark
periods of the Bani Omayyah, the Bani Abbas and other tyrants. So there is no reason at all for those who claim
that hijab can be left in the current situations, for such situations are not
more than harassment and not life-threatening at all.
When it becomes really dangerous – Allah forbid – then the Muslim woman should
avoid going out as far as she can to maintain her religious responsibility.
What is the responsibility of the
husband whose wife disobeys him by going out of the house without hijab?
There is no compulsion in religion. The husband cannot beat her.
The husband must reprimand her and show his displeasure.
And yet if she insists on going in front of na-mahram people without hijab, she
will be sinning. If the husband does
not even protest, he will also get a share from the sin, which his wife commits.
Are there any dua’s that can be
recited during pregnancy?
There are many dua’s to be
recited before and during pregnancy.
Some of them are Qur’anic dua’s, for example:
Surah al-Imran, verse 38,
Surah al-Furqan, verse 74,
Surah al-Saffat, verse 100.
is recommended generally to be in the state of purity (tahara of Wuzu) and also
reciting as many times Surah al-Qadr.
While considering the minimum and
maximum age for mother’s feeding a baby, should one consider the age as per
solar year or lunar year? Can we continue feeding a baby a little beyond 2
The age must be calculated in
accordance with lunar years and not solar years.
You can feed the child after completing 2 years, though the usual period is 2
years, but more is not haraam.
Does a bald woman or a woman with a
shaved head need to observe Hijab?
Hijab is obligatory on every
woman. Whether she has hair on her
head or not, a woman must cover her head.
If women are in their periods, can
they apply henna (Mehndi) on their body, viz.
hands, leg, hair?
It is allowed for a woman during
menses to apply Mehndi, though it is Makrooh (disliked).
What is the Islamic viewpoint
regarding birth control measures that a woman can adopt?
Birth control is allowed if it
is used for temporary effect by adopting means, which usually prevent pregnancy
temporarily. If birth control is
done through a permanent way, e.g. by an operation stopping pregnancy forever, it
will be unlawful.
pregnancy is really harmful for the health of the mother, then she can go for
birth control. If the harm and
danger to her health is permanent, she can go for permanent birth control. If the danger is for a short period of her life,
she cannot use permanent control when temporary control can help her avoid the
Is it necessary that I put on the
Hijab when I come before my brother-in-law? Sometimes the weather is hot and
humid and it is an ordeal to wear the hijab in such times.
It is your responsibility as a
Muslim to wear full Hijab before your brother-in-law.
hot climate cannot be an excuse to leave this responsibility. Remember the Quranic verse answering those who
wanted to make such an excuse: “Say, the fire of Hell is more hot, if they
know”. The only way I can advise
you is that you avoid coming before your brother-in-law as much as possible -
then you will minimize the need for wearing Hijab.
Nevertheless, your suffering is a sort of jihad (struggle) in obeying Allah (s.w.t.).
Is it permissible for a lady to
slaughter a chicken or a goat?
It is permissible. Sex is not a necessary condition for the
slaughtering of a lawful animal. The
main conditions are basically five:
person slaughtering must be a Muslim male or female;
cutting instrument must be made of iron;
front parts (i.e. the abdomen, feet and chest) of the animal must
face the Qibla (i.e. the direction of the Holy Kaaba);
person must mention the name of Allah (i.e. Bismillah or Allah-o-Akbar) while cutting the
throat. The pharynx, larynx and the
jugular vein must be cut, leaving the thyroid cartilage to the head;
the throat is cut, the animal must move.
Even the movement of its eyes is sufficient.
This is necessary if there is doubt whether the animal was alive or dead before
it was slaughtered.
Is it necessary to observe hijab
before other women?
No, hijab is not necessary
before other women as far as your dress is modest.
Q640. If a woman fails to perform her marital
duties, which are wajib (obligatory) on her, canþ dowry be reclaimed back from her? After all, dowry was given
with the aim of fulfilment of all marital duties a wife is to perform for her
husband, so what does the Shariah say regarding this disobedience of the wife?
A. Dowry cannot be reclaimed from the
wife if the marriage was already commenced.
If divorce takes place before commencement of the marriage (i.e.
sexual marriage relations), the wife will be entitled to half of the dowry. If the wife does not fulfil her duties, she will
be Naashiz (disobedient), and then will not be entitled of expenses from her
husband for the period of disobedience.
Islam allows polygamy (having more
than one wife) and forbids polyandry (having more than one husband) Why is it
Islamic Laws governing a society
are always beneficial and ever-lasting because they take into account human
nature and the reality of life.
Islam has permitted polygamy and forbidden polyandry in consideration of the
natural functions of man and woman in the ordering of society.
does not allow polyandry because it leads to an inhuman society. Consider the following disadvantages:
children will not know as to who their father is.
The legitimacy of inheritance is another problem, which will ruin the family structure
and subsequently the whole society.
life between a wife and her husband cannot sustain if woman adopts polyandry.
is against the nature of every man and woman.
polygamy, as a rule, is not a compulsory thing.
Islam allows a man to marry more than one wife with a view of easing social and
domestic hardships. It is written in
the Holy Qur’an: “If you fear that you will not be able to deal justly with
the orphans, marry women of your choice; two, three or four. But if you fear you will not be able to deal
justly with that number, and then take only one.”
husband must not only have sufficient economic means of maintenance but in all
matters polygamy should be governed by principles of humanity and equality.
is allowed by Islam in recognition of the following facts:
are always fewer in number in the world’s population than women. The reason for this are that men are more prone to
illnesses and injuries than women, it is the men who are killed in war and more
baby-girls survive infancy. If men
are not allowed to take more than one woman, society will be compelling women
either to spinsterhood or immorality, which are both undesirable.
is an alternative in a situation where the wife is sterile and yet, the husband
and wife do not wish to part.
all healthy women have to pass through a period, every month when their
condition discourages establishment of sexual intercourse.
But the man does not lose his urge at any time.
What is the remedy if a man is unable to resist his sexual urge during his wife’s
menstruations? Polygamy prevents men from licentiousness and maintains social
the wife falls victim to a chronic disease and the husband does not wish to
cast her off in her illness; taking another wife is a natural and reasonable
solution. On the other hand,
societies, which strictly enforce monogamy, are witness to spiralling rates of
divorces and widespread immorality.
Moreover, polygamy is not necessarily practiced to satisfy the sexual urge only. It secures shelter and respectability for widows,
destitute and orphans too. The aim
of polygamy is to ensure maximum fulfilment for both men and women while
preventing promiscuity and degeneration of the society.
civilized countries of the world prohibit polyandry because no society will
permit the spread of moral degradation, illegitimacy and immorality in the name
of equality or freedom.
Some consider it wrong to marry-off a
girl when her elder brother or elder sister is remaining unmarried. What is the Islamic viewpoint about this matter?
There is no condition of
serial-wise marriage in Islam.
Nobody should impose any limitation if there is a proposal to get a younger
sister or brother married first.
Whoever gets an early and good opportunity may get married first. It is not good to create barriers for marriages.
When a husband commands his wife to do
a wrong thing, say for example, to tell a lie, should she obey him in such
If the husband asks his wife to do any sinful act, such as, telling a lie,
going to a movie, appearing before Na-Mahram without hijab, shaking hands with
Na-Mahram, etc., she should not obey
him in such forbidden acts. Because
nobody should obey anyone by disobeying Allah.
Will a marriage be considered valid in
Islam where the man and woman sign in the Marriage Registrar’s office in a
The recitation of the formula of marriage (i.e. Sigha) must take place in which the woman makes
the declaration and the man accepts; against the agreed amount or kind of mahr
to be paid by the husband to the wife.
The marriage will not be valid without performing the Aqd in Arabic, either
directly by the man and woman or by appointing somebody on their behalf for reciting
Is it permissible for men to demand ‘Jahez’
dowry) from the bride’s family in Islam?
It is absolutely Haram to demand
or ask for dowry (Jahez) from the bride’s family directly or indirectly. Accepting this dowry, paid by the bride’s family
out of compulsion or shame, is similar to earning money from the sale of
alcohol, pork, etc. It is below the
dignity of a man to take money from the woman or her family even if they are
giving it willingly.
What is the permissible minimum age
for men and women to marry according to Islam?
For performing the Aqd, there is
no minimum age-limit, but for sexual consummation, physical maturity is a
Can a Muslim boy and girl marry
against the wishes of their parents?
It is not conditional for the
boy to take his parent’s permission for marriage but a virgin-girl must
necessarily take the permission of her father or in his absence the permission
of the paternal grandfather in particular.
In all cases there is nothing better than the parent’s blessings and consent. In the case that the boy is a Muslim, of good
moral character, sane and mature and there is no objection according to Islamic
Shariah from their getting married, then if the father of the girl acts
stubbornly for no genuine reason, then she can get married without his
Is it necessary for guardians or those
who solemnize marriages to find out whether the boy or the girl has religious
It is not necessary but recommended for them.
It is a must for the boy and the girl seeking marriage to know about ghusl
(bath), tayammum, their mutual rights, etc.
What is the significance of the
engagement ceremony? Boys and girls inter-mingle freely after the engagement (i.e.
Mangni) ceremony. Is there any
prescribed system in Islam, which will make this inter-action permissible?
A. Engagement in itself does not alter
the relationship of the boy and the girl.
Engagement has no significance in Islam except that they intend to get married
to each other in future. Both remain
Na-Mahram and they cannot go out together or hold hands after the engagement.
solution is to perform Aqd-e-Muwaqqat in which the girl puts the condition that
there will be no sexual relationship and she will be married to him for a fixed
period, say from today for six months (or till the time they intend to get
married) against a Mahr of 50 rupees (or any amount for that matter). Hence the dignity of the girl and the boy is
safeguarded and they can go out, talk to each other, etc.
When a husband earns his livelihood
from unlawful sources such as gambling, etc.
or is a sinner (by drinking alcohol, etc.)
Can the wife refuse to fulfil her duties towards such a husband?
If the husband’s earnings are
totally from unlawful sources, the woman should ask here husband to spend on
her Halal (i.e.
lawful) money or otherwise to give her divorce.
If the husband does not accept any of the conditions, the wife must approach
the Hakim-e-Sharh (i.e. the highest religious authority) to deal with her
husband and if unavoidable, procure divorce for her.
the case where the husband has sinful tendencies and habits, the wife cannot
refuse to honour his conjugal rights.
She must hate the evil-habit and not her husband and try to reform him
A Muslim boy wishes to marry a
non-Muslim girl who is willing to convert for namesake only.
Once the girl truly becomes a
Muslim, the boy can marry her. By
name-sake, if you mean, she will continue to perform non-Islamic rituals, like
going to the temple to worship idols, she will automatically cease to be his
wife without the divorce.
Will it be necessary to take the
permission of non-Muslims, girl’s father before marrying her?
If the girl becomes a Muslim,
then the Muslim boy can marry her without the permission of her non-Muslim
father. In this case, a Kaafir has
no right over a Muslim.
Is it permissible to marry the woman
with the man, who had sexual relationship with her earlier?
If the woman was unmarried, the
man can marry her later and if the woman was married, the man can never marry
her even after she is widowed or divorced.
In both cases, it is a grave sin and Islam strictly forbids men and women from
having sexual relationships before marriage.
Can a Shia male marry a non-Shia
If the faith of the man and his
children’s faith will not be jeopardized or fall in danger, he may marry the
Some Muslims remain unmarried because
they cannot marry the girl they love.
Is it correct to do so?
It is not at all desirable. Most often, what they call love is the vile of
Satan behind them. Devoid of sanity,
they follow their desire and sometimes commit un-Islamic acts. A sane person would select a religious, modest and
cultured girl. The love, which
develops after a marriage, is stronger than the bonds of lust and desire. 80% of these so-called love-marriages fail
miserably, ending in disputes and hatred.
Can family members and relatives stop
a husband from oppressing his wife?
Some husbands believe that they
own their wives. They think they can
treat their wives in whatever manner they like.
Is the husband the creator of his wife? A husband has no right to oppress his
Muslim who is witness to such oppression should prevent it. It is the Islamic responsibility to stop
oppression even if two unknown persons are fighting on the street.
I have a Sunni boyfriend studying in
the same college as mine. When my
parents came to know about it they were unhappy.
They have arranged my marriage with a Shia boy.
The Sunni boy met me and has agreed to become a Shia for marrying me. What should I do?
It is very clear to you, too,
that the Sunni boy wishes to become a Shia simply because he wants to marry
you, so there is a vast difference between a person who will claim to be a
name-sake Shia & a real Mu’min.
This difference of faith between you & him may lead to disturbances later
to Islamic Fiqh, even if there is possibility of being misled or being badly
affected, faith-wise, it is Na-jaiz (unlawful) for a Shia girl to marry a
non-Shia boy. And love is not the
complete criteria for a marriage. It
has been observed that majority of love-marriages have disastrously failed. Apply your mind & don’t act under the
influence of sentiments.
advise you to get married with a boy who is really a Mu’min & not one
claiming to be a Mu’min.
Is it true that marriage should not be
contracted in the month of Shawwal?
There is no such injunction in
Shariat. Marriage can be contracted
in Shawwal. Moreover, it is
Should a man wait till the end of his
divorced wife’s Iddah before marrying again?
Iddah is for women. A man need not wait
till the period of Iddah expires.
Will a lady who has married but did
not go to live with her husband, have to observe Iddah after divorce?
Since consummation did not take
place, the lady will not have to observe Iddah after the divorce. Iddah are of two types – for a divorce and for
widowhood. If the husband dies even
before consummation, the lady will have to observe Iddah-e-Wafat (i.e. as a
Q661. Can a couple renew the period of
Aqd-e-Muwaqqat without any Iddah?
Since the couple are the same
they can renew the Aqd-e-Muwaqqat without any Iddah.
Can Aqd-e-Muwaqqat be performed
between the same couple for more than three periods of time?
It is permissible. In fact, it can be done more than 100 times.
A non-Muslim married couple convert to
Islam. Does their marriage continue
or will they have to perform marriage according to Islamic rites?
If both become Muslims, their
original Nikah (marriage) remains and there is no need to remarry according to
Muslim rites. But if one of them
remains a disbeliever, their marriage is automatically annulled without any
kind of divorce, since marriage between a Mu’min and disbeliever is invalid.
What is the Sigha for contracting the
The Sigha (formula) consists of
a declaration by the lady and the acceptance of the man.
The lady should say: “Zawwajtoka Nafsi Fil Muddatil Ma’loomate alal Mahril Ma’lum”
I marry myself to you for the known period against the known dowry) and the man
should say: “Qabilto” (i.e. I accept) or “Qabiltut Tazweeza Fil Muddatil Ma’loomate
Alal Mahril Ma’lum” (i.e. I accept the marriage for the known period against
the known dowry).
Some people believe that marriage
should once again be performed once a couple complete 20 years of matrimony or
when a woman gives birth to 20 boys?
These are nonsensical beliefs,
which do not affect the marriage at all.
Even if the couple were to live for 100 years together and have 100 children,
renewal of marriage contract is not necessary.
A lady has remained separate for 2
years from her husband. Will the
marriage automatically get annulled?
Separation does not cause annulment of marriage.
The marriage cannot terminate unless the husband gives divorce or Hakim-e-Sharh
(Authorised Jurist) decides the matter.
Would it be lawful for a man to marry
a converted wife’s daughter from previous marriage?
It would be absolutely unlawful
for them to contract marriage.
Irrespective of the fact, that the daughter remained a non-Muslim or embraced
Islam, she has become the person’s Mahram, due to his marriage with her mother. She is his stepdaughter and marriage is not
permissible in this case.
Does not Islam actually want a man to
have only one wife because it is next to impossible to treat even two wives
equally with justice?
The Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) have
clarified that the justice which men should observe with regards to their wives
and which is obligatory refers to material and physical provisions. For instance, the person should feed, clothe and
visit his wives in equal measure. If
a person cannot treat his wives equally then he should restrict himself to only
one wife. Even though, a person may
not love his wives equally, it should not cause difference in administering
practical justice amongst them.
Is a stepmother considered “Mahram” (a
consanguineous relative)? Will it be permissible for a person to marry his
stepmother’s sister or daughter from a previous marriage?
A stepmother is “Mahram” and
marriage is forbidden with her even after divorce.
On the other hand, the stepmother’s sister or daughter from her previous
marriage is Na-Mahram and marriage will be valid.
Q670. Will the Sigha (formula) of Aqd-e-Muwaqqat
have to be in Arabic language? And for the divorce too?
The Sigha of Aqd-e-Muwaqqat has
to be recited in Arabic. There is no
divorce in Aqd-e-Muwaqqat. It ends
when the time expires, or when it is terminated.
But the divorce of a permanent marriage will have to be pronounced in Arabic language.
If a man performs Muta with a widow,
then is this widow’s daughter Mahram for him or Na-Mahram, i.e. can
he marry the widow’s daughter later in life?
The Widow’s daughter in the case
of an “Aqd” will be haram on him forever.
Is it necessary to obey the parents
regarding their choice of a marriage partner?
Although it is desirable not to
displease one’s parents, it is not obligatory to marry the person chosen by
them. You may marry if you like. But if you don’t you are not committing a sin.
Some people say that their house or
wife has proved to be lucky for them.
What is the Islamic viewpoint about this?
The source of all blessings is
Allah Ta’ala alone. When the
foundation of a house or a marriage is laid on piety, they do become the means
of receiving Allah’s blessings. But
it does not mean that, for instance when a person experiences loss after
marriage, he should blame her by calling her unlucky.
It is zulm (oppression) and absolutely wrong.
Is it necessary for the person signing
as a witness in the marriage ceremony to check whether the girl has truly given
her consent of her own free will?
It is not necessary unless he
has his doubts. Although witnesses
are not required for a marriage they are necessary for a divorce proceeding.
Can a married person perform
Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) have
commanded that one should not hurt one’s wife.
Although it is not necessary to inform the wife if it is contracted for a valid
reason and according to shariat. It
Can Aqd-e-Muwaqqat be contracted with
ahlay kitab (people of Book) lady who is agreeable only for the sake of money
and is known to be irresponsible about observing Iddah (i.e. the waiting period of 45 days?
Since it is obligatory for a
lady to observe iddah and knowing that the concerned lady will not observe it,
it would not be permissible to contract aqd-e-muwaqqat with her, Aqd-e-Muwaqqat
is a proper marriage after all.
Q677. Can a girl be married off without her consent?
The girl cannot be forced into
marrying somebody she does not like and has not consented to marry.
Does the limitation of four marriages
include the fixed-time marriage?
The four marriages pertain to permanent marriages with the condition of
observing justice between the wives.
The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) said
that the person who marries, half his ‘Imaan’ (faith) is perfected. How?
The correct word is ‘Protected’
and not ‘Perfected’, that is, half of the person’s faith will be protected due
to marriage. Satan has many ways of
inciting people towards sinning. The
path of lust is one such path, which an unmarried person is likely to take. In the absence of marriage, if a person satisfies
his sexual needs by an un-Islamic act, his sense of shame diminishes and
Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) said, “Every religion has its special
character - trait of my community is modesty (Haya)”.
And according to another Hadees, modesty is half of ‘Imaan’. The married person is protected from losing this
trait. Hence, half of his Imaan is
Can a man marry the niece of his wife?
A man cannot marry the niece
(Brother’s or sister’s daughter) of his wife without wife’s permission. There is, however, no harm in his marring her
niece without her permission, provided that she grants such permission later. And if she does not agree to this marriage, the
marriage with her niece is void.
Can a man marry the daughter of a
woman, whom he had earlier married and later divorced?
If the person had sexual
intercourse with the women after marriage, he cannot marry the daughters and
granddaughters of the woman and their descendants, as the line goes down and it
is immaterial whether they existed at the time of his marriage or were born
later. They become his ‘mahram’ and
divorcing the woman does not alter the relationship.
Can a woman get her daughter from an
earlier marriage to marry her second husband’s son, who is not from this
Yes, it would be permissible.
People quote the narration of Hammad
bin Eesa quoted in Shaikh Saduq’s ‘Hal’ and Shaikh Tusi’s ‘Tahzib’ that Imam
considered it unlawful for a man to marry two Sayyedah.
What is the juridical point of view?
Ayatullah al-Uzma Khoei in his
marginal notes on ‘Urwa’ concludes that marrying two Alaviyyah is unlawful
although it does not invalidate the second marriage.
Although the person would be guilty of committing a sin.
Earlier traditionists considered it was unlawful and Ayatullah Kazem Yazdi in
his ‘Urwatal-Wusqa’ held the opinion that it is reprehensible to do so. And it does not matter if the women are related to
Hazrat Fatema Zahra (SA) from the father’s side or the mother’s side.
Is it obligatory for Muslims to marry?
Marriage is a highly
insisted-upon tradition of Islam, which all sane and physically mature Muslims
are required to emulate. It becomes
obligatory when a person gets involved in unlawful acts owing to his / her not
having a wife / husband.
Is it obligatory for a man having two
wives to spend equal amount of time with both?
If a man has two wives and
spends one night with one of them, it is obligatory on him to spend any one of
the four nights with the other as well.
Is the vow made by parents, that their
daughter or son would marry a Sayyed, binding on their children?
The vow made by the parents has
no significance in this regard.
Can a man marry the sister of his
If a man marries a woman
(whether the marriage is permanent marriage or fixed-time marriage) he cannot
marry her sister, so long as their marriage lasts.
Do parents have any right over the
marriage of their children?
The father and paternal
grandfather have full authority over the children who have not yet reached the
age of puberty. When a child reaches
the age of puberty, then there are three different situations:
child who is Baligh but not mentally mature: In this case, the father and the
grandfather still have their authority over him or her.
Such a child cannot take a decision on marriage without the approval of the
father or the grandfather.
male child who is Baligh and also mentally mature: In this case, he has full
right to decide about his own marriage.
girl who is Baligh and mentally mature: Majority of present mujtahids say that
in her first marriage, a Baligh and mentally mature girl should marry with the
consent of her father or grandfather.
And if such a girl had already married before, then she has full right to
decide for herself in case of her second marriage.
the other hand, if the father or grandfather refuses to give his consent to a
proposal of a suitable man, then the girl can approach a religious judge whose
decision will supercede that of her father.
By considering the issue of hijab in
Islam, is a boy permitted to look at the girl before marrying her?
A man is allowed to see without
hijab the woman who he intends to marry.
However, this permission is just for the man or the woman to see the
prospective spouse. It is not a
perpetual license to go out together! It is strongly recommended (by Ulema)
that seeing the prospective spouse should be done in presence of the parents or
the guardians of the girl.
When to marry (dates)? Are there any
special days in the Islamic calendar when marriage is encouraged or
Basically marriage is allowed at
all times. However, there are some
days on which marriage is not recommended; some of these are based on
traditions and some on cultural, historical reasons.
There are some traditions, which say that it is Makruh (abominable) to have
marriage ceremony on the days when the moon is in the direction of Scorpio
(Qamar dar Aqrab). Some traditions,
which say that certain days of each month, are ill-omen days (nahas); these
days are 3rd, 5th, 13th, 21st, 24th
and 25th of lunar months.
Getting education compels young men to
remain unmarried for a long time, even when their sexual urge does not allow
them to remain so. What advice can
you give our Muslim young men concerning this problem?
There is no other way. If a man cannot control himself, and is in danger
of falling in Haraam, then it is Wajib (obligatory) upon him to get married at
once. If he neglects this Wajib (obligatory),
for whatever reason, then he should not blame the Shariat.
Is permanent marriage in Shi’a Islam
allowed without the presence of witnesses? Please provide me with an answer and
the source from which it was taken from.
There are no witnesses required
for Nikah or Muta in the Shia Fiqh.
As for evidence, you do not need evidence for something ‘not’ needed. If at all you ask for evidence, you do so for
something required. Perhaps you
could ask those who believe that witnesses are required for Nikah where they
got it from? If you look up the conditions of Nikah and also look up the
condition of Talaq (Divorce) in the resalah of any Marja, you will see that
there is no mention of witnesses in Nikah, but there is the mention of two just
witnesses in Talaq.
I have a question regarding a Shi’ite
Muslim man marrying a catholic Christian woman.
If they recited the nikah according to Islamic Shariya but she does not follow
the rulings in her daily life and got married in the Christian manner also, is
that marriage valid. What are the
rulings regarding the validity of this marriage.
A Muslim man cannot permanently
marry a non-Muslim woman, even if she is Ahlul Kitab.
Therefore the marriage to a woman who has not converted to Islam is void. But if the woman converted then the marriage is
valid, even if she may not be following Sharia strictly.
However, if she reneges, or goes back to her Catholic faith, the marriage will
become void immediately.
What would happen if the husband did
not provide maintenance for his wife?
He shall be indebted with the
cost of maintenance. If he insisted
on withholding it, despite her demand, she is permitted to take it out of his
property, even without his knowledge.
It is believed that Muslims should not
marry before they are 25 years old because our Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.)
married at the same age. What is the
correct Islamic view?
This is a wrong belief. The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) himself used to encourage youngsters to marry as
soon as they were physically mature.
It is undesirable for young men and women to remain unmarried deliberately.
Can there be objections to Muslims for
bursting firecrackers while celebrating marriages and festivals?
Muslims should not adopt the
ways and habits of non-Muslims. More
so, it will be considered as haram, if it leads to wastage of money.
Would the presents and gifts given to
the bride by the bridegroom’s family become the property of the bride or would
have to be returned in case of a divorce?
The gifts, etc. given by the bridegroom, his relatives and friends
at the time or after the marriage becomes the property of the bride. All those things cannot be taken back from the
I want to know that if there is a
dispute between a husband and wife, and it has reached a level that the wife
does not want to continue the marriage (she wants Khula), is there any Dua or a’maal
so that her heart would become soft and every dispute will settle down.
The husband should make his behaviour
with his wife as best as he can. He
may also recite “Rabbana hab lana min azwaajina wa zurriyaatina qurrata a’yun
waj ‘alna lilmuttaqeena imaama” after every Salaat.
Me and my husband have not had any
relations amongst us for more than 6 months.
Does our nikah break?
The Nikah does not break if
there is no relation between husband and wife.
It breaks when there is Talaq (divorce) or on death.
Q700. Can you tell me about the amount of Mehr
that the Groom has to pay to the Bride? Is it sunnat (recommended) or wajib
The Mehr (Mahr) is an obligatory
right of the Bride on the Groom. It
is her right to fix or agree on the amount of it, and also to take it either
immediately or whenever she wants, or under her agreement.
There is no minimum or maximum amount for Mahr, though it is Mustahab
(recommended) to go for Mahre Fatemi, which is 500 silver dirhams. One silver dirham is about 3 grams of silver, i.e. 500 x
3 = 1500 gms. of silver. It is recommended for the wife not to pressurise
her husband for the Mahr if he is in financial difficulty.
Though Mahr is her right, and will remain her right till she gets it.
We have been married for 10 months and
I have now been checked positive for pregnancy in spite of having practised
precaution. I am just 23 years and
my husband and I have yet to get settled in life before we have a baby. What should I do? Can we terminate the pregnancy?
Please advise what the Islamic view is.
When is the zygote formed? Can we abort before the zygote is formed?
It is Haraam (prohibited and not
allowed) to abort the embryo or the foetus or the zygote even if it be of just
one hour after formation. You must
leave the pregnancy undisturbed and should not terminate it at any cost as long
as it does not endanger your life.
Abortion is a sort of killing, murder and it is a major sin.
When is it forbidden or not
recommended to have sexual relations between husband and wife?
Sexual intercourse between
husband and wife are forbidden (haraam) when she is in her menses (haiz) or
post-natal discharge (nifas). Any
other relation between husband and wife, which is not intercourse, is allowed. It is makrooh (disliked) for husband and wife to
have sexual intercourse during any of these times:
a. When the moon is under Scorpion,
b. The last night of every lunar month
when the moon vanishes totally; it is called the night of ‘mihaaq’,
c. The first night of every lunar month
except the month of Ramazan when it becomes recommended for couples to do so,
d. Between dawn (Fajr) and sunrise,
e. Between sunset and the total
vanishing of light from the sky,
f. The nights of eclipse, earthquake
or severe wind, which are mentioned in the books as yellow, red or black winds.
In two weeks Insha Allah, I shall be getting
married to my mamu’s (maternal uncle’s) daughter.
Can you advise me of my responsibility as a Shiite and the duty on the night of
my marriage? I am nervous about this particular element of consummation and
need to know what Allah (s.w.t.)
expects from me. Is there any
information or knowledge you feel that can assist me? Thank you in advance for
I am glad that you are getting
married Alhamdolillaah. My
congratulations to you and your wife, may Allah (s.w.t.)
bless both of you and grant you happiness and success in your new life. Getting married makes your religion more complete. Your Salaat (Namaz) will, Insha Allah, now be
rewarded 70 times more than that before marriage.
are some recommendations for the wedding night such as:
To be with Wuzu.
To pray a two Rak’at Salaat
(Namaz) when you enter your bedroom.
To put your right hand on your
wife’s head and to pray for your and her happiness and harmony.
Your wife to pray a two Rak’at
Reciting Bismillah Arrahman
Arraheem on touching her and starting your married relationship.
are more details that can be taken from some books on the subject of marriage
At the time of our Muta, neither my
wife nor I had kept any conditions.
Hence I believe that we are not supposed to avoid sexual intercourse for more
than 4 months. But now we want to
avoid it and postpone it at least until our marriage (i.e. when we perform our nikah).
Is it possible to mutually agree now and not have intercourse? Or is there no
other go but to have intercourse every 4 months?
It is allowed to avoid sexual
intercourse in Muta.
Is it possible to perform muta during
the month of Ramazan, and to have a sexual relationship after iftaar?
It is allowed to recite the Aqd
of marriage during fasting whether it is for permanent or for temporary
marriage (muta). No doubt, sexual
relations are not allowed while fasting but after iftaar till before dawn.
I know homosexuality is not allowed in
any religion. But I think I was born
as a gay and from the time I was little, I always liked boys and got tempted by
them. I still feel the same way
although I didn’t choose to be a gay.
I feel I am like this by birth. My
family and friends do not know about this and will hate me and won’t keep any
relationship with me if they do. I
am 34 and they are now asking me to get married.
I don’t want to get married because girls don’t attract me. I won’t be able to make any girl happy because of
this problem. I don’t want to marry
a girl and destroy her life. It is
killing me everyday. I am under lot
of pressure. I pray and cry to Allah
(s.w.t.) all the time to help me solve this problem. Can you advise me, please?
A. Every human being is born either male
or female. There are some abnormal
cases with unusual features of the opposite sex, which lead to misunderstanding
of the gender. Such cases need
medical examinations to determine the genetic structure of the person, which
indicates his or her gender. If the
structure is ‘XY’ it means that the person is a male, whereas if it is ‘XX’, it
will indicate that the person is a female.
This genetic examination defines the gender, no matter what the human being
looks like. Some females’ look like
males because of extra amount of male hormones in their bodies, similarly, some
males look like females because of extra female hormones in their bodies. This abnormality can be treated medically. I advise you to take a medical opinion and have a
check-up to be sure that the hormones in your body are in order.
is nobody created as ‘gay’ as you claim.
There can be a problem in identifying the gender or in the hormone balance. Those who do not have any feeling towards females
might themselves genetically be ‘females’, or vice versa.
harbouring temptations towards one’s own sex is an evil desire just like having
temptations towards drinking liquor or beer.
Such satanic temptations can never be justified or taken as normal. Every sin is a result of a temptation and a desire,
but sin remains sin. Homosexuality
is a dangerous sin and a serious crime, because of which Allah (s.w.t.) had destroyed the people of Lut. If you mind your fate, you must avoid such
dangerous sins and indeed every sin.
Try your best to control your desires and remember Allah (s.w.t.) and your grave and the Hereafter when such
sinners will be severely punished.
May Allah (s.w.t.) save you and all of us from every sin.
In the context of marriage in Islam,
is it a problem if the woman has finished her university education while the
man is still studying? The woman will therefore become the breadwinner for a
while. I ask this because in some
cultures people believe that the man has to be ‘higher’ than the woman. What is the Islamic point of view on this matter?
How do you define ‘compatibility’ in Islam? Does ‘status’ come into it?
There is no harm at all if the
wife willingly wants to spend on or help her husband due to his financial
problems. Although it is not
obligatory on her to spend on her husband, if she wishes to do so, she will be
doing good. Such co-operation from
her will strengthen the relationship with her husband and increase
compatibility between them.
between husband and wife does not depend on financial situation, but on faith,
morals, and mutual respect and understanding.
I have heard that if a man has the
intention to get married, it is halal (permissible) to see a photo of a girl
without her hijab! Is it halal for the man to see her on web camera live and everyday
without her hijab? Does he have to get her father’s permission? Finally, can he
see her without her knowledge?
A man can see a woman or a girl
that he considers for marriage, without hijab, just for one time. He can see her on webcam but again this too can be
once only. Seeing her more than once
even on webcam is haraam (forbidden).
He can also see her photograph for the purpose of marriage only. He can not see her without her permission or
Can a non-Sayed boy get married to a sayyed
A non-Sayyed boy can get married
with a Sayyed girl. Many of the
daughters of the Sadaat during the time of many Imams got married to non-Sayyed
boys. Imams (a.s.) never stopped or objected to that. The Hadees says “Al-Mo’min Kof’a al-Mo’minah”
which means ‘the Mo’min is an equal match to the Mo’mina’.
So, the main criterion is just Emaan and not family background. Many Maraj’e-taqleed and great scholars (Ulama)
who were sayyeds gave their daughters in marriage to non-sayyed boys, which
confirm the practice.
Is nikah without the presence of an
imam and two Muslim adult male witnesses valid? (There is no marriage
certificate.) What if the wali
(guardian) has given his consent in writing but during the actual nikah, he was
not present? Also, my husband told me that nikah without the presence of an
imam and two witnesses are valid if it is recited in the Masjid al-Haram
because no place on earth is more holy than that.
Is this true?
Nikah is valid even without the
presence of a Shaikh or an Aalim, etc.
and also without the presence of witnesses as witnessing a nikah is just
recommended and not a must. This is
valid everywhere, and not only in the Haram.
Is it necessary for guardians or those
who solemnize marriages to find out whether the boy or the girl has religious
It is not necessary but recommended for them.
It is a must for the boy and the girl seeking marriage to know about ghusl
(bath), tayammum, their mutual rights, etc.
Is it wajib (obligatory) for a virgin
lady who has lost her father and grandfather to seek the consent of her mother
or brother before marrying?
It is NOT wajib (obligatory) on
a virgin female who lost her father and grandfather to get her mother’s or
brother’s consent for her marriage, though keeping the mother happy is very
I am not able to understand why Mut’a
(fixed-time marriage) is allowed in Shia Islam for so many people misuse it. I have also heard that Imam Ali (a.s.) had
contracted 99 Mut’a in one night. Is
this correct? Does the Holy Qur’an mention anything about Mut’a?
Mut’a in its real meaning is an
Islamic marriage with many conditions similar to permanent marriage. Some people misuse Mut’a, just as some also misuse
permanent marriage. Misuse of the
Islamic marriage – just like misuse of any other law or thing - is wrong, but
that does not make the concept of the real marriage or the underlying law wrong.
Islamic institution of Mut’a (fixed-time marriage) is the only solution for
millions of females and males who need marriage but cannot get married for any
reason. They have no choice to save
themselves from sin, but to follow the Islamic Shariah of fixed-time marriage
(Mut’a). Without the Islamic
marriage of Mut’a, millions of Muslim males and females will fall in sin. Nevertheless, the Islamic marriage of Mut’a should
not be misused, and those who misuse it in any manner are the only ones who
will be responsible of their wrongdoing.
claim of 99 Mut’a in one night is nonsensical and baseless. Imam Ali ibn Abi Talib (a.s.) used to spend most parts of his nights in prayer
is mentioned in the Holy Qur’an in Surah an-Nisaa’, verse 24. It is also mentioned in many ahadees (traditions)
narrated in Sunni and Shia references.
A person agreed to marry his daughter
to me, but later on changed his mind because of the mischievous things told to
him by someone else. If I commit
sins then who is responsible for those sins - the one who played the mischief
or the man who changed his mind to marry his daughter to me? Is that man who
broke the agreement of marriage also a sinner?
As far as there is no Aqd
(recital of marriage - nikah) between you and the girl, she is free to change
her mind. No doubt, it should be
based on valid reasons. If anyone
commits sin, he will be responsible for it, and he will be entitled for
punishment. Nobody can blame others
for his sins. If that person refused
your proposal for his daughter, you can propose for other suitable girl. The girl whom you wanted to marry is not the only
girl, that if you do not marry her you will be left with no choice but to sin.
What are the rules and regulations of
Muta? What is the complete and precise formula (Dua / Ayat) to make a valid
Muta? What is the maximum time limit for the Muta?
Muta is a fixed-time marriage. The husband is not responsible to spend on his
Muta wife unless they put it as a condition of the Muta.
The children are legitimate just like any marriage.
The Idda after Muta is 45 days before the lady can marry somebody else.
agreeing on the Mahr and the time-period of the marriage, the lady or any one
on her behalf tells the man: ‘Zawwajtoka Nafsi alal Mahr Al-Ma’loom lil
muddatil Ma’looma’ [I agree to marry you for the agreed Mahr and the agreed
time]. The man replies: ‘Qabilto’ [I
accept]. Both must know that it is a
marriage with fixed time.
maximum time for Muta should not be more than the usual lifetime of the human
being. It can be 50 or 60 years, but
it cannot be 200 years.
Who are Mahrams? Is brother-in-law
included in this category before whom a lady is bound to do hijab? Is she bound
to do hijab before her brother-in-law (sister’s husband, her husband’s
brother-in-law and her husband’s brother)? What if she lives in a joint family
Mahrams are the very close
relatives with whom marriage is permanently impossible, such as (for females):
her father, grand-fathers, her real brothers and their sons, her mother’s real
brothers, her father’s real brothers, her sons and grandsons, her sons-in-law,
her step-father, and her father-in-law.
is not mahram at all. Muslim female
must observe hijab before her husband’s brothers as far as they are baligh or
even before that if the boy distinguishes between male and female bodies (such
boy is called as Mumayyiz in Shariah).
Sister’s husband is also not mahram, so, hijab is a must before him.
in a joint family does not cancel your Islamic duty as a Muslim woman who must
observe hijab before all Na-Mahrams, whether outside or inside the house.
Can one talk to the person whom one is
engaged to without Hijab. Is he a Mahram?
Engagement does not make it
permissible for a male and female see each other freely.
Unless the ‘Aqd’ or Nikah is performed, they are still ‘na-mahram’ for each
What is the literal translation of “Mut’a”?
What are the views of Sunnis and Shias about Mut’a? Please also give references
in this respect.
Mut’a can be translated as ‘facility’. There is Mut’a of Hajj (Hajj al-Tamatto’) and
there is Mut’a of expenses given to the divorced woman.
The time-fixed marriage is called Zawaaj al-Mut’a as it is a facility from
Allah (s.w.t.) to save men and women from unlawful sexual
majority of the Sunnis follow Umar ibn al-Khattab, who banned Mut’a leaving
behind the clear teachings and orders of the Holy Qur’an and Ahadees allowing
is an Islamic rule, which was declared by the Holy Prophet Mohammad (s.a.w.a.). Shia Muslims believe that nobody can change any
Islamic rule and it will remain valid till the Day of Judgement.
Nisaa’, verse 24 is very clear Quranic evidence that Mut’a marriage is lawful
according to the Holy Qur’an. You
may refer to www.al-islam.org for more details and more evidences.
references admit that Umar was the one who banned this marriage, which means
that it was allowed before Umar’s ban.
said: “Two types of Mut’a were (legal) during the time of the Prophet and I
forbid them both, and I punish those who commit it.
They are: Mut’a of pilgrimage and Mut’a of women.”
Tafsir al-Kabir, by
al-Fakhr al-Razi, V. 3, p. 201 under verse 4:24
Musnad Ahmad Ibn
Hanbal, V. 1, p. 52
both Ibn Jarir al-Tabari and al-Zamakhshari narrated that: “al-Hakam ibn
Ayniyah was asked if the verse of Mut’a of women is abrogated. He answered: ‘No’.”
under commentary of verse 4:24 of the Holy Qur’an, V.8,
by al-Zamakhshari, under the verse 4:24, V.1,
Ibn Kasir mentioned his commentary: “al-Bukhari declared that Umar used to
forbid people on Mut’a.”
reference: Tafsir Ibn Kasir, V.1, p.233
in another Sunni commentary it is reported that: “Umar said, while on the
pulpit: “O folk! Three were (allowed) during the time of the Messenger of Allah
I forbid them, and make them haraam, and punish on them.
They were: Mut’a of women, Mut’a of Hajj (pilgrimage), and saying ‘Hayya Ala
by al-Fazil al-Qoshaji, (Imama Section)
Ali ibn Abi Talib (a.s.) said: “The Mut’a is a mercy from Allah to his
servants. If it were not for Umar forbidding
it, no one would commit (the sin) of fornication except the wretched (Shaqi; an
Tafsir al-Kabir, by
al-Sa’labi, under commentary of verse 4:24 of the Holy Quran;
Tafsir al-Kabir, by
Fakhr al-Razi, V.3, p.200, commentary of verse 4:24;
Tafsir al-Kabir, by
Ibn Jarir al-Tabari, under commentary of verse 4:24 with authentic chain of
narrators, V. 8, p.178, Tradition #9042;
Tafsir al-Durr al-Mansoor,
by al-Suyuti, V.2, p.140, from several chains of transmitters;
under commentary of verse 4:24 of the Holy Quran;
Tafsir ibn Hayyan,
V. 3, p.
218, under commentary of verse 4:24 of the Holy Quran;
by al-Nisaboori (8th century);
Ahkam al-Quran, by
Jassas, V. 2, p. 179, under commentary of verse 4:24.
ibn al-Akwa’ and Jabir ibn Abdullah reported: “Allah’s Messenger (May peace be
upon him) came to us and permitted us to contract temporary marriage.”
English version, V. 2, chapter DXLI
(titled: Temporary Marriage), Tradition #3247
Arabic version, 1980 Edition published in Saudi Arabia, V.
2, p. 1022, Tradition #14, “Kitab
al-Nikah, Bab Nikah al-Mut’a”
I am a married man having 3 children. My wife is a good woman and a very religious lady. Lately I have noticed she spends a lot of time in
prayers, reading the Holy Qur’an, and worship every day and night. Now I am beginning to feel that she is not giving
much time to me and the family as she is busy performing prayers, etc. late at night and is very tired and thus I do not
want to force her to have love with me.
Should I keep silent and let it things be the way they are? As per the Sharia,
is it permissible for her to perform good deeds and neglect her husband? I am
very disturbed by all this.
It is a bounty on you that your
wife is a good and pious lady. She
is spending time in prayers and reading the Holy Qur’an, which are, in fact,
great acts. You know that many women
nowadays while their time watching movies or other wasteful or sinful
activities. This bounty from Allah
(s.w.t.) on you should be appreciated and thanked for. Nevertheless, your wife should keep a balance
between worshipping Allah (s.w.t.) and
her duties towards you as her husband.
It is not acceptable for the wife to neglect her duties for any reason. So, I would advise you to talk to her very gently,
appreciating her attention towards worshipping Allah (s.w.t.), and
at the same time reminding her to keep a balance between worship and her duties
as a wife. You should not discourage
her from her worship, but only remind her about her duties towards you, which
must be fulfilled by keeping a reasonable balance.
If at some point in a temporary
marriage (Mut’a) the wife is not happy with the situation, can she cancel the
The husband has to agree to
cancel and forgive her for the remaining period of the Mut’ah.
Are sexual relationships allowed in a
Mut’a is a marriage, but she can
put a condition with the agreement to exclude sexual relationships. Then it will not be allowed
If a man wishes to enter into a Mut’a
with a woman who agrees, can the brother of that woman disagree and stop the
The brother has no say in the marriage. If the woman is a virgin, she needs her father’s
or her paternal grandfather’s consent.
A temporary marriage (Mut’a) was
entered into with a condition of not having sex.
In what situation can one break this condition?
When the person who put the
condition withdraws it.
Q724. If a woman fails to perform marital duties,
which is wajib on her, can dowry be reclaimed back from her, because dowry was
given with the aim of allþ
marital duties a wife has to perform for her husband, so what the shariat says
regarding this disobedience of the wife?
A. Dowry cannot be reclaimed from the
wife if marriage was already commenced.
If divorce takes place before commencing the marriage (sexual marriage
relation), the wife will be entitled of half of the dowry.
If the wife does not fulfill her duties, she will be Naashiz (disobedient), and
then will not be entitled of expenses from her husband for the period of
Q725. What are the conditions that must be
conformed to when entering into a Mut’a (time-fixed marriage)?
A. Almost the same conditions as that of
a permanent marriage, i.e. the lady should not be married nor should she be
in her period of iddah. Both must be
Muslims, or the lady can be from the Ahl al-Kitab.
The Mahr and the time period of the Mut’a should be agreed to. If the lady is a virgin, then she needs permission
from her father or her paternal grandfather.
Q726. How does one explain the Islamic permission
A. Polygamy is a vital need for many
persons in every human society. All
previous religions approved polygamy.
The great prophets like Prophet Ibrahim [Abraham] (a.s.), Prophet Dawood [David] (a.s.) and Prophet Sulaiman [Solomon] (a.s.) had
many wives. Polygamy not only solves
the problem of men who need it for their different reasons, but also solves the
problem of millions of marriageable women who do not or cannot have husbands
under the monogamy system, as the number of marriageable males is always less
than marriageable females for many reasons like wars, accidents, and hazardous
work jobs undertaken by men, not to speak of the usual reasons like divorces
and widowhood. Without polygamy,
illegitimate relationships will spoil millions of men and women, as we already
witness in the western societies - a fact repeatedly confirmed by their own
statistics and reports. There is no
way for unmarried females to fulfil their needs and have children under the
unjust and impractical monogamist system – the only option being to enter into
illegitimate affairs and relationships and consequently destroy their dignity,
besides producing an enormous problem of illegitimate children who have no
fathers to look after – not to speak of threatened marriages and a large
populace of men and women of loose morals – further menaces for a civilised
society. Polygamy is a mercy from
Allah (s.w.t.), the Most Merciful, on human beings. This, however, does not mean that all persons
should go for polygamy. The Holy Qur’an
puts a very important condition (practical justice between the wives) without
which polygamy will not be allowed.
Q727. Can a man enter into a Mut’a with another
woman who is already married?
A. Obviously not, just as he cannot
enter into a permanent marriage with such a lady.
Q728. Can a woman refuse to enter into a Mut’a
with a man?
A. Yes, just as she can refuse his
proposal for permanent marriage.
Q729. If both the man and the woman agree to
enter into a Mut’a, can the woman’s brother disagree and stop the process?
A. The brother has no say in the
marriage. If the lady is a virgin,
she needs her father’s or her paternal grandfather’s consent.
Q730. Is not the practice of Mut’a susceptible to
abuse, say, by the youth today at universities, colleges, etc.?
A. Those who abuse Mut’a are themselves
responsible for the abuse, just as would be the case if any other facility or
benefit is abused or misused. Who is
responsible for the abuse permanent marriage itself? Can we blame the
institution of permanent marriage when some misguided or corrupt people abuse
it or misue it? It is religious consciousness and awareness that make people
cautious against abusing Islamic rules.
the youth, who attend universities and colleges, are really in danger of
falling into Haraam, they can save themselves from it by adopting this Islamic
temporary marriage. If Mut’a is
banned as Umar ibn al-Khattab had ordered his people, what would be state of
those who are in real need but fear indulging in Haraam? That is why we read a
saying narrated from Imam Ali ibn Abi Talib (a.s.) that if Umar had not banned Mut’a, no one would
fornicate but a very few.
Q731. Some people contend that Mut’a is a form of
‘legalised prostitution’, while others say that it ‘dilutes’ the importance of
the institution of marriage, promoting a loose sense of commitment among the
participants. Please clarify.
A. If one lists the differences between ‘marriage’
and ‘prostitution’, one will realize the difference between ‘Mut’a marriage’
and ‘prostitution’. Mut’a is a serious
marital relationship permitted in Islam to save men and women from falling prey
to sin. A Mut’a marriage establishes
definite rights and obligations amongst the husband and wife, as does the usual
Nikah marriage. The Mut’a marriage
is a kind of marriage, which saves people from falling into illegitimate
relations, besides saving the society at large from numerous social evils that
are being faced by promiscuous societies.
Q732. Can a Shia Muslim girl marry to a
A. A Shia Muslim girl cannot marry any
non-Muslim. If such a person accepts
Islam, then he can get married with a Muslim girl.
If that is not the case, it will not be marriage but an illegal relationship.
Q733. I converted to Islam after having practiced
my earlier faith for many years. I
have been told that I should adopt a Muslim name.
But that would mean enormous difficulties vis-à-vis government work, bank
formalities and professional difficulties, not to speak of social problems. Is it necessary for me to go through all that?
A. Islam is having faith on the Truth
and practicing it. Changing name is
Q734. I fell in love with a Muslim woman before I
knew anything about Islam. Although
I have converted to Islam and have spoken the truth and told what I want from
my wife the woman’s family doesn’t accept me.
Is something wrong with Islam or with me or the family when everyone denies me
as a Muslim and my right for Islam and my being a Muslim? It hurts me because I
lose also my best friend. Can a
Muslim revert usually marry a born Muslim? However, I am told that Muslim men
can marry a Christian woman. Please
A. A Muslim revert is just like any born
Muslim, and can marry any Muslim woman who agrees to marry him. The family about whom you are talking may need to
be sure that you are really a Muslim for the sake of the truth and not for any
thing else. They might have cultural
ideas which are stopping them from accepting a new Muslim for marriage, but
such cultural ideas have no value in Islam as Islam deals with all Muslims (new
and born) as equals.
Can a husband take back the jewellery
he had given to his wife, after divorce?
If the jewellery was given as a
gift, the husband cannot take it back after divorce.
But if it was given specifically for safekeeping as Amaanat, he can take it
Where will the wife go after divorce
if she has no house of her own?
During Iddah, the divorced wife
will stay in the husband’s house and her normal expenses are to be given by the
husband. There should be no
injustice from the husband’s side. A
divorced woman is not oppressed in Islam, as some opponents allege. She receives her amount of dower (Mehr) and
maintenance. All that she brought
with herself and the gifts and what was given to her by the husband and
relatives belong to her. The things
she bought and spent in the house from her own money also will be returned to
her. Hence, it is not correct to say
that Muslim women are made to suffer after a divorce.
Will the woman be deprived of her
children after divorce?
A woman’s relationship with her
children is not severed by divorce.
The male child up to two years of age will remain with the mother and the
female child till she completes 7 years of age.
Their maintenance will be borne by the husband.
Later, they will return to the father and the mother will have the right to
visit them periodically, as per mutual agreement.
Should I listen to my father who is
commanding me to divorce my wife?
The father’s wish need not be
respected in this regard.
Should custody of a child be given to
a husband after divorce, who does not pray and drinks alcohol?
The father has the right to the
custody of the child; if it’s a boy, after 2 years and if it’s a girl after 7
years. The hakim-e-Sharah (religious
authority) can pressurize the father to mend his ways and to leave bad habits
before giving custody of the child to him.
What is the difference between the
waiting period (Iddah) of divorce and that following the husband’s death?
A. The ‘Iddah’ of divorce is three
months or two periods of menses and as soon as the lady has menses for the
third time her waiting period comes to an end while ‘Iddah’ of a widow is four
months and ten days if she is not pregnant.
In case, she is pregnant she should observe the waiting period till the birth
of the child. But if the child is
born before the expiry of four months and ten days from the death of her
husband, she should wait till the expiry of that period.
Does the wife, who had contracted
fixed time marriage, observe ‘iddah’ if her husband dies during the period of
Yes, she should observe Iddah
for four months and ten days.
Under what circumstances can a woman
marry immediately after divorce without observing the Iddah?
If the girl is under nine or the
woman is in menopause (aya’isa one does not experience menses) or when the
husband divorces his wife before having sexual intercourse or when causes lead
to annulment of marriage, the woman need not observe the ‘Iddah’ of divorce and
is free to marry another man immediately.
Q743. Is there iddah for old women?
A. Iddah is only for those women who can
be pregnant. It is iddah of talaq
(divorce), which is not wajib on very old women.
However, iddah of wafat (death) is wajib (obligatory) on her (after the death
of her husband).
Q744. Is the talaq (divorce) valid, if there are
A. Without the witnesses of two pious
men divorce is not valid at all.
Is it necessary for women to wear
burkha? When hairstyles of men can be equally attractive and fashionable, why
are men not ordered to wear caps or turbans by Islam; why should only women
cover their hair?
A woman must cover herself from
the Na-Mahram by wearing burkhas or Chadors-stitched or unstitched.
it is not obligatory for men to cover their head.
Because the effect of a woman’s exposed hair and body is not the same as that
of looking at a man’s hair and body.
If this was made obligatory for men, life would become difficult. At the same time, men should not sport fashionable
types of hair-styles resembling that of women because it is Haram. This necessity is ordained by nature that women
should observe complete hijab and men should remain exempted from this
I am a college-going girl. When I wear complete Islamic Hijab, the majority
of the non-Muslim girls who don’t wear it give me strange looks, and even make
fun of me. What should I do?
A believer’s main purpose in
life is to earn Allah’s pleasure.
For a Muslim, other people’s satisfaction doesn’t matter if their desire is
that you violate Allah’s command.
History is replete with instances where earlier prophets were ridiculed by the
disbelievers. So this is not
something new. You must observe complete
Islamic hijab whether people approve of it or not.
You will get the reward of doing Jihad (i.e. for struggling against sin and satanic forces) if
you were to bear hardship in the Way of Allah.
Are clothes, which retain the smell of
soaps after washing considered clean (paak)?
If the clothes are rinsed twice
with pure water, it will be considered clean even if the smell of soap or a
stain is retained.
Is it allowed for a man to wear a silk
It is not allowed for men to
wear pure silk. Mixed silk is
allowed if it is not called pure silk.
Is singing in a tuneful voice without
any musical accompaniment, permissible in Islam?
It is Haram (i.e.
forbidden) in Islam to sing in a tuneful voice with or without music.
Can we listen to classical
instrumental music on Shanai, Sitar etc?
Shanai, Sitar, all these instruments, which are musical instruments are usually
made for “lahv and la’b” i.e. (lust) and so they are najaiz. (Haram)
Some people claim that it is
permissible to listen to Qawwali sung in praise of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.). Is it correct?
Their belief is wrong. Qawwali is
Haram. For example, would we allow
someone to sing the verses of Qur’an? Moreover, it is an insult to drag the
holy names of Ahlul Bayt (a.s.) in cheap tunes.
What can be the means of entertainment
according to Islam?
Entertainment in Islam is
recommended but it has to be within reasonable limits.
1. It should not be games of gambling. Even if there is no gambling involved, the games
devised originally for gambling purposes cannot be played.
Chess, playing cards etc.
Entertainment should not
consume too much of one’s time because then a human being’s most important
asset “time” will be squandered in useless pursuits.
Entertainment should not
include any haraam acts like songs, music, etc.
Entertainment should not lure a
person away from performing his duties whether it is his “wajib (obligatory)
acts,” “Ibaadat” or his work, which he has to do for his livelihood. Even his studies should not be affected.
It is very important to
entertain the body and the mind with the intention to be healthy, strong and
active and be a successful person according to the orders of Allah and Ahlul-bayt
A Muslim has a record-player which he
wishes to dispose. If he sells it,
it will be used only for listening to music.
Should he sell it or destroy it?
He may sell it if it can be used
for lawful purposes. It is not
permissible to buy or sell prohibited items like musical instruments. If the instruments can only be utilized for
playing music, it should be destroyed.
I know music and dancing are both
haraam. However, are music and
dancing haraam within the boundaries of marriage too? In other words do the
same rules apply for music and dancing between husband and wife?
It is haraam (unlawful) to
listen to music, which is usually used by sinners even within the boundaries of
husband and wife.
wife can dance for her husband but without music.
However, nobody is allowed to see her except her husband.
This is according to majority of the scholars, although Ayatullah Seestani does
not allow dancing altogether.
I am a nauhakhwan (reciter of elegies
commemorating the martyrdom of Imam Husain (a.s.)) and we go to different villages for nauhakhwani. There are certain villages where they play flute
and beat drums when we recite the nauhas (elegies).
Does Islam permit us to recite nauhas with drums, flutes and/or other musical
The music which is usually used
with songs and among sinners is not allowed at all.
Funeral or marshal music is allowed according to many leading Ulama.
If one is compelled to visit a
restaurant run by a Muslim and doubts whether all the servants are Muslims, or
whether the food is properly served, what should one do?
If the servants are Muslim then
he need not act on his doubt. Only
in case of certainty that the servants are non-Muslims should he restrain
himself from eating or drinking in that restaurant.
Do we have any directive of Ahlul Bayt
Yes, we have narratives of Ahlul
which refers to beef as causative of certain diseases.
Of course it is permissible but Makruh, perhaps due to the old age of the
Can one give cooked food to beggars
who are non-Muslims?
It can be given in charity to
non-Muslim beggars, if he is not an enemy of Allah and if he is hungry.
Gelatin commonly used in ice creams
and kulfis are made from animal bones.
Will it be permissible to eat them?
If it is known that the animal
is slaughtered lawfully, its bone will be permitted for use. When it is known that gelatin has been made from
lawful bones or from vegetarian sources, it is clean.
And eating ice-creams which uses such a gelatin would be permissible. If you know that it contains najis material, then
it is haraam to eat it.
Would it be permissible to slaughter
an animal, which has met with an accident and is about to die, but still alive,
for eating purposes?
Yes, and the meat will be lawful
for use after slaughtering it. In
many countries, the animal is electrically stunned and it becomes unconscious. Slaughtering such an animal is also permissible
because the animal at that time is alive.
If the animal dies after an accident or due to shock, it would not be
permissible to use its meat even after slaughtering it.
Is camel’s meat undesirable (makruh)?
Camel’s meat is undesirable to
eat; yet it is permitted.
Is it permissible to eat the food in
which a house-fly or cockroach is found?
The food does not become najis. In fact, cleanliness is part of a Muslim’s faith. A true Muslim is one whose heart, tongue, clothes
and food are clean.
Does eating najis food makes worship
invalid for 40 days?
Eating najis food does make the
worship of 40 days invalid. Eating
najis food and coming to know later, he should not let Satan deceive him to say
that it is worthless praying for the next 40 days.
What it means is that the person will not get the complete reward and status
for his worship acts. The person
should not abandon his Namaz at any cost.
Why should we differentiate between
human beings and say that it is not good to eat from the hands of non-Muslims?
Human beings are all identical
and what make them equal are their beliefs and actions.
Are people heading for hell similar to the people heading for heaven? Is there
no difference between Noor and darkness, belief and disbelief, good and bad?
Apparently, we do not see the physical manifestation of Imaan and Kufr in this
world. It will become clear in the
Here-after world. So, from the point
of belief, Islam prohibits a believer from eating the food touched by a
Can one consider the food served in a
Restaurant as Paak without inquiring?
Except when you come to know for certain that the workers who touch the food or
wash the utensils are najis.
Is it jaiz (permissible) to eat crabs?
It is haraam to eat crabs.
Can we eat the eggs without shells,
which are found inside a chicken?
The eggs and milk of all lawful
(Halaal) animals will be considered equally lawful.
It will be permissible to eat eggs found inside the Halaal chicken whether they
are with or without shells.
Can one eat a sweet dish in which ants
have entered and died such that it is not possible to remove them?
Once the ants are removed, the
food can be consumed. But if it is
not possible to remove them, the food should not be consumed.
Can one lie so as to avoid eating the
najis (unclean) food offered by somebody since it is not permissible to eat
You cannot lie. You may say that it is not good for me or that you
have been advised to abstain from it.
You need not say who has advised you to avoid it.
You can also say it is harmful for me after all; unclean food is harmful to one’s
faith and health.
Can one eat a thing whose chance of
probable purity is 1%?
It cannot be consumed because
the certainty of it being impure is 99%.
Is it permissible to eat or chew ‘Qat’
- a type of leaf which 90% of the Yemenites consume every day and 99% on
Thursdays? It is a type of stimulant.
It is permissible provided it
does not act as an intoxicant for the consumer.
Is sugar made from Najis (impure)
sugar-cane juice considered as clean?
The unclean sugarcane juice does not become clean due to change in form alone
because no chemical transformation has taken place.
My non-Muslim friend tells me that
Muslims indulge in cruel and inhuman practice for killing animals for eating
purpose. How should I reply to him?
If the criteria of ‘True Life’
is to be associated with movement and reproduction alone, then every human
being on earth will be guilty of cruelty and inhuman practices. Because many invisible live organisms and microbes
are killed in the process of breathing air and drinking water. Even the vegetarians who uproot plants and vegetables
cannot deny the fact that they are snuffing-out ‘life’ from them.
are permitted to slaughter only a handful of animals like camel, cow, sheep,
chicken, etc. for food. And a very large number of other types of animals
are forbidden to them. While many
non-Muslims communities kill almost every kind of animals for food.
beings are disposed by nature to benefit from all creation without causing any imbalance
in the Universe. So Allah, the
Omniscient creator alone knows what need to be left untouched and what should
be eaten by human beings.
What does Islam say about the timings
for taking meals?
It is recommended to take one’s
meals in the earlier part of the day and in the earlier part of the night and
one should not partake meals at midday or midnight.
Why is it that we should not eat or
drink any substance after having an intercourse without performing the
Ghusl-e-Janabat? Is this only for male or for female too?
It is Makhrooh for males and
females. If it is difficult to
perform the Ghusl (bath) and the need arises to eat or drink one should take
water 3 times in his mouth & nose.
It is permissible to eat the egg,
which contains a small quantity of blood?
Its use should be avoided
according to an obligatory precaution.
However, if the blood is in the yolk (yellow portion) of the egg, its albumen
(white portion) will be pure unless the veil lying between the yolk and the albumen
Are frozen meat and canned fish,
imported from non-Muslim countries pure?
If it is not known that these
things were prepared according to Islamic law, it would be prohibited to eat
them, irrespective of the fact that they were purchased from a Muslim seller.
Is it unlawful to eat the meat of a
domestic hen, which eats impurities like faeces?
On the basis of obligatory
precaution, a domestic hen who is habituated to eating impurities like faeces
should be prevented from doing so for 3 days and should be given clean food
during that period before slaughtering it for food.
Is it permissible to eat a fish, which
has been roasted alive or is slaughtered out of water while it is alive?
It is lawful to eat it but it is
better to refrain from eating it.
Q780. Is it lawful to eat the food, which is served
in silver utensils?
If the pure food served in
silver utensils is transformed to another lawful and pure utensil, there is no
harm in eating or drinking in that utensil provided the people do not say that
food is being eaten from gold or silver utensils.
Is it wrong to admonish children who
take a long time while taking meals?
One of the recommended things to
be observed while taking meals is to prolong the duration of taking meal,
implying that one should chew one’s food well, say Bismillah before eating and
to thank Allah after taking one’s meal and so on However prolonging the
duration of taking meals should not lead to overeating, which is the worst
thing in the eyes of Allah.
Is it obligatory to feed a hungry
It is obligatory upon every
Muslim to save the life of a Muslim, who is dying of hunger or thirst, by
providing him something to eat or drink and thus save his life.
Suppose a Muslim eats something
forbidden in his religion - will he need a special purification? What is it?
There are no special
purification rites. The method of
cleansing by water, as described in ‘Elements of Islamic Studies’ applies here
one must ask forgiveness of Allah for disobeying His Shariat.
What about imported cheese from
non-Muslim countries, if I do not exactly know the way it was made and its
It is permissible for you to eat
Some food items given to poultry are
mixed with 30% pig bones, which help the chicken gain weight at the rate of
about 2 kg in 40 days. What is the
ruling on this and is there any objection to it?
This precludes neither the
permissibility of consuming its meat nor its ritual purity, if it is
slaughtered in the Islamic manner.
But it is preferable to keep animals away from these food items. God knows best.
Is it permissible for a Muslim to be
present in gatherings where alcoholic beverages are served?
Eating and drinking in these
gatherings is prohibited. As for
mere presence, its prohibition is based on obligatory precaution. There is no objection to it if the aim is to
prevent others from reprehensible actions, if one is able to do so.
The bodies of some types of fish are
not fully covered with scales. Is it
permissible to eat them?
Yes, it is permissible for you
to eat them if they have but a single scale.
Is it permissible for a Muslim to cook
that, which was not slaughtered in the Islamic manner, knowing that he has no
connection to selling or serving it? What is the ruling with respect to serving
food that is ritually impure [not slaughtered in the Islamic manner] or
conveying it to non-Muslims? Is there a difference in this between pork and
There is no objection to cooking
that which is not slaughtered in the Islamic manner or serving it to those who
regard it as lawful. However, it is
problematic to sell it to them. But
there is no objection to taking the money in return for the Muslim sellers
relinquishment of his right over it (foodstuff).
Alternatively, by rescuing (istinqaz) it (i.e. money from a non-Muslim).
As for pork, it is problematic to serve to those who regard it as lawful and
without a doubt disallowed for sale.
God knows best.
Is there some recommended timings in
Islam for taking meals and how many times can one take meals in 24 hours.
The food timing order helps the
health. The main guidelines in Islam
about food are: (a) Do not eat when not hungry.
(b) Do not eat to a full stomach, 1/3 for food, 1/3 for drinking and 1/3 for
breathing is a practice, which is very good for health.
(c) Do not delay the lunch or the day meal.
(d) Do not sleep with full stomach.
(e) Chewing food well helps a lot and gives food the best taste and your body
best benefit of it.
Ulema have written that best timing for food is that of Paradise – people get
their ‘Rizq’ in the Paradise during morning
and evening (Bukratan wa Ashiyya)
is harmful to put food on food, i.e. to eat when food is still in your stomach. Although these guidelines are useful but it is
more important to emphasize on the cleanliness (Taharat) of food and it should
be purchased or obtained from Halaal (Jaaez) source.
One mouthful from Haraam food can damage the soul spiritually. For that the Momin should take utmost care about
the purity of his food.
Please explain whether eating of
Mushroom is Halaal or Haraam?
Eating of Mushroom is Halaal. All edible things, which are not flesh of animate
organisms or from such origin are Halaal provided they are not intoxicants and
not poisonous or harmful.
According to Ahadis what types of food
should be eaten and Duas to be recited for increase in sustenance?
Every Halaal food has got its
own benefit for human being.
Bismillaahir rahmaanir raheem is very important to avoid its harm if any. Many details are mentioned in books like Tibbe
I am staying in Arizona.
As I do not get Halaal chicken or mutton here, I am on a total vegetable diet. Could you please let me know what is the provision
for Halaal/Haraam meat in such situations? Is there Halal/haraam in case of
fish or seafood?
You cannot eat any chicken or
mutton or beef or any other meat before being sure that it was slaughtered in
the proper way prescribed by Shariat.
slaughtered by a Muslim and directed towards Qibla and slaughtering should take
place mentioning the name of Allah (s.w.t.). If you don’t get Halaal non-veg food you must
avoid the Haraam and pull on with veg.
food till you are able to get Halaal meat or chicken.
fish and seafood it should also be Halaal but the way through which fish and
seafood becomes Halaal includes two things:
1. The fish should have scales on its
body or it can be prawns as well, which is from the non-fish seafood. All the fish without scales are Haraam. Crabs and shells and other types of non-fish
seafood are also Haraam.
2. It should not die in the water
before it is caught. If the fish is
poisoned or killed by explosives leading to death in the water then it will be
Haraam to eat it too.
Please describe which kind of meat of
which animals and birds is Halal and allowed to be eaten?
Among the land animals that are
halal to eat are: chicken, sheep, goat, cow, camel, horse, mule, gazelle,
donkey, antelope, buffalo, wild cow and zebra.
It is Makrooh, though not haraam to eat meat of domestic horse, mule and donkey.
is haraam to eat meat of carnivorous animals that have claws, such as lion,
tiger, cat and fox.
is also haraam to eat the meat of rabbit, elephant, bear, monkey, jerboa, mouse,
snake, hedgehog and crawling animals and insects.
birds that are halal to eat are pigeon of all kinds, sparrow, swallow, pheasant
nightingale, ostrich, peacock etc.
is haraam to eat the meat of crow, wasps and other flying insects, apart from
locust and also the meat of all birds of prey i.e. that have talons, such as falcon, hawk and eagle. So is the meat of any bird that, during flying,
aligns its wings (i.e. glides) more than it flaps its wings.
one does not know the way it flies then among the indicators that may identify
it as being halal is that it should have one or more of three organs – a craw,
a spur or a gizzard.
the marine animals one can eat all species of fish, provided they have scales. It is haraam, however to eat dead floating ones. Among marine animals that are haraam to eat are
catfish, tortoise, turtles, frogs, snails, crayfish, lobsters and every
Is it allowed to eat burnt food?
It is not allowed to eat harmful
burnt food. And you have to remove
the black burnt parts from the food before consuming.
Can a Muslim sell beer, wine or liquor
if he himself does not drink it?
Dealing with beer, wine and
liquor is absolutely forbidden.
Manufacturing, distributing, selling serving or any other type of involvement
with alcoholic beverages is haram and the participant is cursed by Allah.
Some of our community brethren believe
that eating fish during Muharram, Safar, and upto the 8th of
Rabi-ul-awwal is not permissible. Is
It is not Haraam at all to eat
fish or any permitted food during Muharram and Safar.
It is just a matter of not expressing joy according to the social customs in
the Indian subcontinent. The Shia
brethren there avoid eating fish during these two months on account of mourning. This does not mean at all that it is Haraam to eat
fish or other permitted food during these two months.
Is it permissible (halal) to eat eel?
Eel is a non-scaly fish. Non-scaly fish are not allowed for eating.
In our country frozen meat, turkey and
chicken are imported from countries we do not know.
Is it permissible (halal) to eat such stuff?
Imported frozen meat needs
evidence to be taken as permissible (Halaal).
It is Haraam (prohibited) to eat any meat (e.g. turkey, chicken, beef, and mutton) before being
sure that it is from an animal, which was slaughtered properly according to the
Islamic Shari’a. Frozen meat
imported from non-Muslim countries cannot be taken as Halaal, unless and until
you have real evidence that it is actually Halaal.
Such evidence can be provided by a trusted witness who witnessed the
slaughtering process. Writings or
marks on the meat or on the boxes claiming it to be Halal do not have any
value, because most of the companies now-a-days want to sell more meat by
writing the word ‘Halal’. Without
really slaughtering every animal as prescribed they claim it as Halal according
to Islamic Sharia.
Can the parents eat from the meat of
the aqeeqa of their children?
It is makrooh (disliked,
abominable) for the parents to eat from the meat of the aqeeqa of their
Is it wrong to eat, drink or go out in
the state of Janabat?
It is Makrooh (disliked) to eat,
drink or even sleep in the state of janabat.
To avoid the harm, it is recommended to wash your mouth and nose three times
each before eating, drinking or sleeping.
Can a momin disown his own children
(born out of a nikah marriage? If so, under what circumstances? If disowning such
a child is permitted in Islam will that child inherit the property of his
parent or not?
Nobody can disown his own
children under any circumstance and the child will get inheritance from his
parents. It is haram for parents to
refuse or deny the relationship between them and their children. Some children behave very badly with their parents
that amount to “Uqooq”. “Uqooq” is a
great sin i.e.
Gunah-e-Kabira, (Great Sin) but that also does not deprive the child from
Can a momin child (not baaligh) be
debarred from getting father’s/mother’s inheritance, due to any reason
whatsoever? If so, under what circumstance?
“Na-Baaligh” child cannot at any
cost be deprived of inheritance from his parents.
The inheritance would not be given to the children in one of these two cases:
If the child kills or indulges
in killing his father or mother.
If he changes his religion from
Islam to something else, he will not get the inheritance from his parents. For this matter we do not know any difference
amongst Muslims. All Muslims
generally believe in this rule.
What is Wasiyyat in Islam? What are
its Rules and what have our Ma’soomeen (a.s.) said about it?
Wasiyyat in Fiqh means a will of
a person, which is made either verbally, or in writing or by any act showing or
expressing his will, for something to be done after demise. Wasiyyat (will) sometimes is concerned with
belongings and properties, which is called Wasiyyat “Tamlikiyaa”. For example the deceased may have said that so
much is to be given to so and so after his death, sometimes it may refer to an
act to be performed on behalf of the person who makes the Will. For example that after his demise he should be
buried in, say Najaf-e-Ashraf. This
is called Wasiyat Ahdeeyah. It is “Mustahab”
for every mo’min to have his will written and even keep below his pillow.
a person becomes ill and it happens to be a terminal illness and he realises he
or she is going to die soon, if he has rights of others on him, it is “Wajib (obligatory)”
to make a will. For explanation
purpose there are two types of dues:
is due on him for others? What is due on him for Allah?
Zakat, Namaz, Ha], Roza, Kaffara Radde mazaalim, etc.
As far as the implementation of the Wasiyat is concerned.
Everybody has full right to make Wasiyat upto 1/3rd i.e. 33%
of his whole assets. 1/3rd
will then be spent anywhere he wishes or on charities on his behalf if he has
After a man dies, how is his wealth
distributed? Does this distribution depend on his wasiyyat?
After a person dies his or her
total wealth must be distributed according to Shariat, but if he has willed
then only 1/3rd of his wealth can be implemented according to his
example if some one has willed that all his assets be given to his wife, or
friend or a son, then this person will only be entitled to get 1/3rd
of the total wealth and the balance has to be distributed as per the law of
Shariat to the rightful heirs. In
case the heirs want to forgo, they are free to do so, otherwise it is their
right. Obviously the person who was
gifted 1/3rd in the will also will be considered for the 2/3rd
according to Shariat.
What articles of a deceased person
belong exclusively to the eldest son?
The eldest son exclusively
inherits his deceased father’s clothes, rings sword and Holy Qur’an provided
those are not the only things left behind and the deceased is not indebted to
Does a wife inherit from the husband
who had divorced her before his death?
If the husband had died during
the waiting period of divorce (Iddah) and the divorce was revocable, his wife
inherits from him.
A man died leaving behind a wife, 2
married sons, one married daughter, and in his will, the major portion of his
property has been given to his sons and a very small portion to his daughter. Stating that he has already spent monies at her
daughter’s marriage during his lifetime.
In this case, what is the validity of the will as per the Law of the Holy Qur’an
and in which way should the will be put to practise?
Any will left by the deceased if
not fulfilling the laws of the shariat [Islamic Law] is invalid in Islam. In fact one should exert to disburse the legacy as
per shariat law, which permits only 1/3rd of the deceased’s wealth
to be given away as he pleases. Out
of the balance, 1/8th goes to the wife and the balance is
distributed in the ratio of 2:1 for sons and daughters.
So that the sons get twice as the daughters.
Parents, brothers, sisters, wife and
children survive a dead Muslim. What
are their shares in inheritance and in what manner would it changes in the
absence of one or the other group of relative?
In shariat, blood relatives are
divided in 3 categories:
1st Parents and children: When there are no children at all,
then their children take their place.
2nd Grandparents (both paternal and maternal) and brothers and
sisters: When there are no brothers and sisters at all, their children will
take their place.
3rd Paternal and maternal uncles and aunts: If there is none
then their children, Husband and wife will inherit each other with all the
above-mentioned three categories. As
long as there is even one person of first category, the second and third
categories will get nothing. In the
absence of the first the heirs of the second category will inherit. And if there is no one in the second category,
then the heirs of the third category will inherit.
Now in the question, brothers and sisters will get nothing in the presence of
parents and children. If there is
only one heir in the first category (only father or mother or a son or a
daughter) he/she gets the whole estate.
If there are only the parents, the mother gets one third and the father
two-thirds. If there are the
children only, a son gets twice the share of a daughter.
there are both parents, wife and children, then the share will be as follows:-
mother 1/6; wife 1/8; and the remaining 13/24 will be divided among the
children, a son getting double of what a daughter gets.
there are only brothers, sister, and wife, the wife gets 1/4; and the residue
is divided among the brothers and sisters.
If there are only brothers and sisters, the estate is divided as in case of
children (a brother getting double the share of his sister), for further
details, refer to an authoritative book on laws of Islamic jurisprudence. (The reply is kind courtesy of the distinguished
Allamah Sayyed Saeed Akhtar Rizvi).
What should be done in case of a dead
person whose assets are not enough for complying with his will?
The dead person’s assets should
be spent, in order of priority, on obligatory acts in the first instance and
then on recommended acts and finally on the lawful deeds.
Is it permissible to make a will
whereby parts of body like eyes, kidneys, etc.
be removed after death?
It is permissible for a Muslim
to make a Will with regard to amputation of parts of his body after his death
so that it may benefit other Muslims.
However, amputation of a limb of a dead Muslim in the absence of a consenting
Will or a post-mortem where the life of another Muslim is not at stake is not
permissible and the person amputating or dissecting under such circumstances
are liable to pay compensation (Diyah).
Can a persons claim that the dead
person has made a Will that so much amount be given to him, be acceptable in
the absence of a written Will?
If a person says that the dead
person has made a Will that so much amount should be given to him, and two just
men confirm his statement or he takes an oath and one just man also confirms
his statement, or one just man and two just women, or four just women bear
witness to what he says, the amount claimed by him should be given to him.
A son dies in the lifetime of his
father. The father has other sons
and daughters. After the death of
the father, would the children of the deceased son inherit along with, their
uncles and aunts?
Nearer heirs exclude the remoter ones from inheritance.
Sons and daughters being nearer to their father, exclude his grandchildren from
inheritance because they are one degree removed.
However, it is very much emphasized that the grandfather should give them a
part of his estate or assets through a Will or as gift.
It would be in keeping with the obligation of Sile Rahm and in accordance with
What is the Islamic law regarding the
share of adopted daughter from the real parents and from the adoptee?
From the real parents she will
inherit as per Shariat law but parents who adopt her do not have responsibility
the adopted daughter does not have any rights.
I am widow with no issues from my only
marriage. My only relatives alive
are my mother, my stepfather, and my real sister.
As per the Sharia, who will inherit my own property at my death? Can I decide
the disposal of my property or the shares each one gets by making a will? Who
should be the executor of my will?
Your mother is the only person
who is entitled to your property and money after your death. This is because you do not have living father,
husband or issue.
sister has no share if the mother is alive.
As inheritance has three degrees, where the first degree includes the parents
and children, the second degree includes the brothers, sisters and grandparents,
and the third degree includes the uncles and aunts.
existence of any living person from the first degree prevents the persons in
the second degree and third degree from inheriting.
Likewise, the existence of any living person from the second degree prevents
the persons in the third degree from inheriting.
Your mother is from the first degree, while your sister is from the second, and
there is no inheritance for the second degree when any person from the first
degree is alive.
stepfather has no share in any case.
Executor of your will can be any trusted person even your own mother being a
beneficiary in your case.
have full right to decide in your will about the disposal of one-third of your
property and money after your death.
This one-third can be given to any body or appropriated for any good purpose
that you choose and mention in your will.
I advise you to make a will in the interest of poor children and orphans,
building a Masjid, a Husainiya, a school, a dispensary, or a water well etc. at any place in need of these.
My father passed away 7 years ago
leaving a property, which belonged to my mother and himself to me with the
consent of my mother and one brother and one sister.
They had another property, which it was agreed would go to my sister, as my
brother did not want anything. I now
worry that this may not have been as per the Islamic inheritance laws. Please advise me because I do not want to die with
the thought that all my life I took my brother’s and/or sister’s part of
There can be two situations as
1. If your father did give you the
property during his lifetime as a gift for you, then you became the owner of
the said property while he was still alive.
In such a case you do not need the consent of your brother, sister and mother.
2. If your father did not gift or give
you the property during his lifetime, but made a will in your favour, then his ‘Will’
will be applicable only on one-third of all his belongings and properties. This means that if the value of the concerned
property is up to 1/3 of all that he had, then, you will be the owner of the
property. But if the value of the
property is more than a third of your father’s belongings and properties, then
you need the consent of the other family members (mother, brother and sister)
to allow you to own that part of the property, which is more than the one-third.
you have any doubt, it is very good to have a mutual understanding and seek
permission from all concerned just to be on the safe side.
Sale / Purchase
Can a partnership be considered valid
where all the partners who earn a profit do not work?
The partnership would be valid
because it is not a condition that all partners should work. For example, a partner may have invested his money
for running the business. Such a
partner has a right to the profit.
My father works in a Finance Company. Can I utilize the money for doing business?
If interest is involved in the
dealing of your father’s finance company, it would be unlawful to utilize it.
Three persons get together to do
business in partnership. One of them
only contributes financially but does not work.
What will be the percentage of his profit?
The percentage of profit will be
as per their mutual agreement. It
could be 25% or 75% or any amount decided upon by the three of them. This type of arrangement is known as Muzaribah,
that is, a collaboration where one party gives money or machinery or expertise. In partnership, all three of them contribute equally. In the course of business if there is a loss due
to unavoidable circumstances, the financier will bear the loss. But if it is due to carelessness of the workers,
everyone will bear the loss.
Can a person pay money to obtain a
diploma or a degree from Institutions?
This is blatant treachery, which is forbidden in Islam.
It is not befitting a Muslim to doubt the Generosity of Allah and indulge in
It has become a custom for newly
wedded Muslim couples to spend the first night in a hotel-room. Would it be permissible if liquor is being sold on
If liquor is served on an
adjoining table, it would be ‘haram’ to eat food in that room. But if one’s room is separate, they themselves don’t
drink liquor and their going to that hotel does not amount to supporting it by
their patronage, it would be permissible for them to stay in such a hotel.
Under what circumstances can a ‘Waqf (endowment
or trust) property be sold?
Once a property is declared as a
‘Waqf property, neither the owner nor anybody can sell it or gift it to anyone
else. Unless of course, if the
endowed property is not sold there is fear of loss of life or property, that property
may be sold and the money should be spent on a purpose which is nearest to the
object of the person who made the endowment.
Or when the person endowing it had allowed the sale under certain circumstances.
Is it permissible to buy fish from a
If a dead fish having scales,
about which it is not known whether it was caught from water alive or dead is
in the hands of a Muslim it is lawful, but if it is in the hands of a
non-Muslim it is unlawful although he says that he has caught it alive. It is not necessary that a person catching a fish
should be a Muslim or should utter the Name of Allah while catching it. It is however necessary that if he is a
non-Muslim, a Muslim should have seen him catching it or the fish should be
alive at the time of buying or he should become sure by some other means that
the non-Muslim caught it from water while it was alive.
What is the order about purchasing and
selling musical instruments?
Purchase and sale of instruments
of pleasure (like guitar, lute and harmonium) is unlawful and on the basis of
precautions, the same order applies to the small instruments, which are the
toys of children.
Can a creditor claim the repayment of
his debt from the sale of the debtor’s house and household effects?
If the debtor does not possess
anything other than his residential house and the household effects and other
things, which he needs, the creditor cannot claim repayment of his debt.
Can a person who has endowed a thing
take it back or sell it?
If a person endows a thing, it
ceases to be his property and neither he nor anybody else can either make a
gift of it to any person, re-possess or sell it.
Can one sell adulterated stuff like
milk, oil or grains?
If it is neither possible to
detect the adulteration nor does the seller inform the buyers about it, this
act is called ‘Ghash’ (cheating) and is unlawful.
The Holy Prophet (s.a.w.a.) said: “When a person cheats his brother
Muslim, Allah deprives him of his livelihood, closes the means of his earnings
and leaves him to himself.”
What about buying and selling the
shares of incorporated companies or others?
It is permissible to buy and
sell shares of any kind of corporation on the condition that the transactions
of this company do not engage in prohibited activities such as dealing in
intoxicants or interest (riba).
Q828. Three brothers are partners in a business
and one of them separates with his share.
After some years, the brother returns to ask for his share from a room, which
was not accounted earlier. Will he
be paid according to the rate of the premises at the present rate or that,
which existed at the termination of partnership?
The person shall be paid his
share according to the present rate of price.
Can loan on interest from the banks be
taken for business purposes, when one is reasonably confident that the interest
one has to pay will be far lower than the benefit accrued by adding new
equipment which cannot be bought due to paucity of liquid money in the company?
If equipment is not modernized, stagnancy of the company is sure and
competition from others can ruin the company.
Interest loan to be taken or
given is not allowed. If you wish to
take loan from bank for business, there are laws of Shariat to be followed and
details of these procedures can be easily known from Ulema-e-Deen. Certainly there are many ways of getting loan from
the bank without indulging in any haraam act.
Can one work for a non-Muslim, whose
nature of business, one is not aware of, whether he is doing only haram
(unlawful) business or perhaps doing halal (lawful) and haram type of busi